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I am in doubt about the lack of the squared distance r in the expression below:

v(r)= constant* int_vol div M /|r_0 - r| dV

M: magnetization vector

r : displacement vectors

Is it correct to say that magnetic potential V(r) obeys the inverse square law ? Or it is more correct to say that the inverse square law can be "infered" from the expression above?

thanks for your help

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# Homework Help: Magnetic potential and inverse square law

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