Magnetic vector potential of finite wire

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zezima1
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Homework Statement


The problem statement is attached.

The Attempt at a Solution


I know how to solve the problem. However, my teachers solutions notes and my book's do it differently, and I want to ask what the difference is, so I have attached them both. My book does it the way I did it. My teacher's however introduces a dummy variable z', which is integrated over rather than z. Thus we end up with an expression that actually contains z. What is geometrically the difference between these two solutions? Clearly in my book's solutions the origin is placed a distance z1 below the wire - where is the origin in my teachers note's?

Cheers :)
 
Attachments
  • Textbook problem 5.22 asking for the magnetic vector potential of a finite straight wire on the z axis, followed by Eq. 5.64: A = (mu0 I / 4pi) times the integral of dl' over r.
    problemstatement.png
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  • Two worked derivations of the magnetic vector potential A of a finite straight wire: the textbook solution integrating over z to a logarithm, and the teacher's solution with dummy variable z' giving arcsinh terms, plus a diagram of a wire segment from z1 to z2 with distance s.
    solutions.png
    45.3 KB · Views: 3,510
The book's calculation finds the vector potential in the xy-plane, at a point a distance s from the origin. Your teacher's calculation is more general. It finds the vector potential for any z. If you set z=0 in his or her solution, you'll get the book's solution.
 
vela said:
The book's calculation finds the vector potential in the xy-plane, at a point a distance s from the origin. Your teacher's calculation is more general. It finds the vector potential for any z. If you set z=0 in his or her solution, you'll get the book's solution.

I do not understand, how can we do this only in the xy-plane, doesn't the vector field also depends on z? I think the textbook solution is wrong because we have to consider z dependence but not simply set it to 0.