Mathematical Induction with Sigma notation

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the formula for the sum of cubes using mathematical induction, specifically the equation ∑(r^3) = n^2(n+1)^2/4 for r = 1. The initial base case was incorrectly calculated as 1 = 2 due to a division error, where /2 was mistakenly used instead of /4. The correct base case confirms that 1 = 1(4)/4 holds true. The induction step involves adding (k+1)^3 to both sides of the equation, leading to the conclusion that the formula is valid for n = k + 1.

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NotChelsea
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Prove by mathematical induction that

n
sigma r^3 = n^2(n+1)^2/4
r = 1

so far I have

1
sigma r^3 = 1^2(1+1)^2/2
r=1

1 = 1(4)/2

1 = 4/2

1 = 2

I'm not sure what to do after this for the k+1 case.
 
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Hello, and welcome to MHB! (Wave)

Your induction hypothesis $P_n$ is:

$$\sum_{r=1}^{n}\left(r^3\right)=\frac{n^2(n+1)^2}{4}$$

As your induction step, I would suggest adding $$(n+1)^3$$ to both sides...

edit: I just noticed you have an error in your check of the base case $P_1$...can you spot it?
 
ummmm is it because of the "1 = 2"?
 
The "1=2" happened because you divided by 2 instead of 4.
 
NotChelsea said:
Prove by mathematical induction that

n
sigma r^3 = n^2(n+1)^2/4
r = 1

so far I have

1
sigma r^3 = 1^2(1+1)^2/2
r=1
As Opalg pointed out, in your original formula you have "/4" but have accidently changed that to "/2".

1 = 1(4)/2

1 = 4/2

1 = 2
which is NOT true! But with "4" in the denominator as in the original formula this becomes 1= 1(4)/4 which is true.

I'm not sure what to do after this for the k+1 case.
The reason so many induction problems involve sums is that then the "k+1" case is just the "k" case plus the next term!

With n= k+ 1 you have
[math]\sum_{r=1}^{k+1} r^3= \sum_{r= 1}^k r^3+ (k+1)^3[/math]
[math]= k^2(k+1)^2/4+ (k+1)^3[/math].

Factor [math](k+1)^2[/math] out of that to get
[math]= (k+1)^2(k^2/4+ k+ 1)= (k+1)^2(k^2+ 4k+ 4)/4[/math]

And now you just have to observe that [math]k^2+ 4k+ 4= (k+ 2)^2= ((k+1)+1)^2[/math] so that [math](k+1)^2(k^2+ 4k+ 4)/4= (k+1)^2((k+1)+1)^2/4[/math]
really is "[math]n^2(n+1)^2/4[/math]" with n= k+ 1.
 
ohhhh I see it now. Thank you so much!
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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