- #1
aristurtle
- 26
- 0
What's the underlying principle to demonposite metrict fluctuation as scalar ,vector and tensor?
Is this decomposition complete?unique?
for scalar mode,
[tex]\begin{equation}
\delta g_{\mu \nu}=a^{2} \left( \begin{array}{cccc}
2\phi & -B,_{i} \\
-B,_{i} & 2(\psi \delta_{ij}-E,_{i,j})
\end{array}\right)
\end{equation}[/tex]
why should 00 term to be a "scalar"?but it is not a lorentz scalar?and why shoud 0i terms to look like a 3 vector? thank you.
Is this decomposition complete?unique?
for scalar mode,
[tex]\begin{equation}
\delta g_{\mu \nu}=a^{2} \left( \begin{array}{cccc}
2\phi & -B,_{i} \\
-B,_{i} & 2(\psi \delta_{ij}-E,_{i,j})
\end{array}\right)
\end{equation}[/tex]
why should 00 term to be a "scalar"?but it is not a lorentz scalar?and why shoud 0i terms to look like a 3 vector? thank you.