Mathematical question i physics

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the mathematical derivation of the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) from the electric field \(\vec{E}\) in the context of electromagnetic theory. The user seeks to integrate the curl of \(\vec{E}\) given by the equation \(\nabla \times \vec{E} = -\frac{d\overrightarrow{B}}{dt}\) to find \(\vec{B}\). The functions \(f_1\) and \(f_2\) depend on the variable \(u = z - ct\), and the chain rule is applied to derive the necessary derivatives. The goal is to demonstrate that the dot product \(B \bullet E = 0\).

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  • Understanding of vector calculus, specifically curl and divergence.
  • Familiarity with electromagnetic theory, particularly Maxwell's equations.
  • Knowledge of the chain rule in calculus.
  • Proficiency in handling functions of multiple variables.
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  • Study the application of the chain rule in multivariable calculus.
  • Learn about the properties of electromagnetic fields and their mathematical representations.
  • Explore the derivation of Maxwell's equations and their implications in physics.
  • Investigate the conditions under which the dot product of electric and magnetic fields equals zero.
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Physics students, electrical engineers, and researchers in electromagnetic theory who are looking to deepen their understanding of the relationship between electric and magnetic fields.

nhrock3
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[tex]\vec{E}=f_1(z-ct)\hat{x}+f_2(z-ct)\hat{y}+0\hat{z}[/tex][tex] f_1(u)[/tex] and [tex]f_2(u)[/tex] are functions of "u"
u=z-ct
i have the formula
[tex]\nabla \times \vec{E}=-\frac{db}{dt }[/tex]
[tex]\nabla\times\vec{E}=|\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> \hat{x} & \hat{y} & \hat{z}\\<br /> \frac{{d}}{dx} & {\frac{{d}}{dy}} & \frac{{d}}{dz}|=\\<br /> f_{1}(z-ct) & f_{2}(z-ct) & 0\end{array}\hat{-x}\frac{{df_{2}}}{dz}-\hat{y}\frac{{df_{1}}}{dz}+\hat{z0}=-\frac{{d\overrightarrow{B}}}{dt}[/tex]

i want to find B
so i need to integrate the left side by t
in order to get B
but f_1 f_2 are function of u
how to make a result
?


and then i need to show that [tex]B\bullet E=0[/tex]
i can't get 0
 
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hi nhrock3! :smile:

(write "tex" not "TEX"; and write "itex" rather than "tex", and it won't keep starting a new line :wink:)
nhrock3 said:
[tex]\vec{E}=f_1(z-ct)\hat{x}+f_2(z-ct)\hat{y}+0\hat{z}[/tex]
[itex]f_1(u)[/itex] and [itex]f_2(u)[/itex] are functions of "u"
u=z-ct
i have the formula
[tex]\nabla \times \vec{E}=-\frac{db}{dt }[/tex]
[tex]\nabla\times\vec{E}=|\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> \hat{x} & \hat{y} & \hat{z}\\<br /> \frac{{d}}{dx} & {\frac{{d}}{dy}} & \frac{{d}}{dz}|=\\<br /> f_{1}(z-ct) & f_{2}(z-ct) & 0\end{array}\hat{-x}\frac{{df_{2}}}{dz}-\hat{y}\frac{{df_{1}}}{dz}+\hat{z0}=-\frac{{d\overrightarrow{B}}}{dt}[/tex]

i want to find B
so i need to integrate the left side by t
in order to get B
but f_1 f_2 are function of u
how to make a result
?


and then i need to show that [tex]B\bullet E=0[/tex]
i can't get 0

you notation is very confused :redface:

perhaps because you are? :wink:

f1 is a function of only one variable, and has only one derivative, call it f1' …

(z - ct) is a function of two variables, and has two derivatives …

applying the chain rule:

∂f1(z - ct)/∂z = f1'(z - ct); ∂f1(z - ct)/∂t = -cf1'(z - ct) …​

carry on from there :smile:
 

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