- #1
Hebob80
- 11
- 0
Given the Lorentz-Fitzgerald contraction equation:
t = [tex]\sqrt{1-\frac{v^{2}}{c^{2}}}[/tex]
'c' can be understood as the maximum allowable occupation of spacetime.
I've seen it written on these boards that black holes are calculated by Einstein's equations as infinitely dense points, which is to say, there is no maximum occupation of spacetime for them. Shouldn't there be?
In the Lorentz-Fitzgerald equation, an object moving the speed of light is calculated as contracting to a single point in the direction of motion, but we can hardly say that this object is infinitely dense, in fact someone on the ship would measure the ship as if it were at rest. So wouldn't the same be true for a black hole? If this is true for black holes, as well as an object moving the speed of light, then wouldn't there be some calculatable maximum density?
t = [tex]\sqrt{1-\frac{v^{2}}{c^{2}}}[/tex]
'c' can be understood as the maximum allowable occupation of spacetime.
I've seen it written on these boards that black holes are calculated by Einstein's equations as infinitely dense points, which is to say, there is no maximum occupation of spacetime for them. Shouldn't there be?
In the Lorentz-Fitzgerald equation, an object moving the speed of light is calculated as contracting to a single point in the direction of motion, but we can hardly say that this object is infinitely dense, in fact someone on the ship would measure the ship as if it were at rest. So wouldn't the same be true for a black hole? If this is true for black holes, as well as an object moving the speed of light, then wouldn't there be some calculatable maximum density?