ferranvalles
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Can someone explain why the maximum coefficient of friction is 1??
Why μ <= 1 ?
Thank You.
Why μ <= 1 ?
Thank You.
The discussion revolves around the maximum coefficient of friction, specifically addressing whether it can exceed 1. Participants explore various scenarios and materials that may influence the coefficient of friction, including glues, surfaces in specific contexts, and examples from practical experiences.
Participants express differing views on whether the coefficient of friction can exceed 1, with some asserting it can in specific contexts while others maintain that it is conventionally understood to be less than or equal to 1. The discussion remains unresolved with multiple competing perspectives presented.
Participants reference various scenarios and materials without reaching a consensus on the definitions and implications of the coefficient of friction. The discussion highlights the complexity of frictional forces and the conditions under which coefficients may vary.
314159271828 said:It could be greater then 1. For example if you have glue, or a really viscose m aterial between the two surface.
ferranvalles said:But if you are talking about glues and something like this, you are not talking about friction, it's a different force.
For definition, when the coefficient of friction is m:
0<=m<=1
And I wonder, why m<=1?
ferranvalles said:Thank you everybody.
Now I understand the coefficient friction can be higher than 1.
Another explication is that in a ramp, the coefficient of friction is equal to the tangent of ramp's angle.
The angle can be higher than 45º, so the tangent would be also higher than 1, as a consequence we can get a coefficient as high as we want (considering that a body is holded in the ramp).