Moment of Density Problem midterm in 2 hours helpppp

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the moments of the probability density function defined by f(x) = e^(-x) for x ≥ 0. The first moment is computed using integration by parts, resulting in the value of 1. Subsequent moments, such as the second moment, are derived similarly, leading to the conclusion that the kth moment equals k! (k factorial). This conclusion is supported by an inductive proof approach.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of probability density functions (PDFs)
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, particularly integration by parts
  • Familiarity with moment calculations in probability theory
  • Basic concepts of mathematical induction
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of probability density functions and their moments
  • Learn advanced integration techniques, focusing on integration by parts
  • Explore mathematical induction proofs in probability theory
  • Investigate the applications of moments in statistical analysis
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for midterms in probability and statistics, educators teaching probability theory, and anyone interested in mastering the calculation of moments for probability distributions.

sfwweb
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Moment of Density Problem... midterm in 2 hours helpppp

Homework Statement


If f is a nonnegative function whose integral is equal to 1, then f defines a probability density; the kth moment of this distribution is defined to be the average value of x^k with respect to this density. Compute all moments of the density defined by f(x) = e^(-x) on the positive half-line.

Homework Equations


\begin{displaymath}M(\theta) = E[e^{X\theta}] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{x\theta} f(x) dx. \end{displaymath}

The kth central moment of a random variable X is given by E[(X-E[X])k

The Attempt at a Solution


The answer is K!, but i don't know how to get there.


THANKS SO MUCH!
 
Physics news on Phys.org


Since the pdf is defined as [itex]e^{-x}[/itex] for [itex]0\le x< \infty[/itex], the first moment is defined as
[tex]\int_0^\infty xe^{-x}dx[/tex]
. Integrate that by parts, letting u= x, [itex]dv= e^{-x}dx[/itex]. Then du= dx, [itex]v= -e^{-x}[/itex] and the integral becomes
[tex]xe^{-x}\|_0^\infty+ \int_0^\infty e^{-x}dx[/itex]<br /> It should be easy to see that that first term is 0 at both 0 and [itex]\infty[/itex] and easy to do the other integral.<br /> <br /> Then the second moment is given by<br /> [tex]\int_0^\infty x^2e^{-x}dx[/itex]<br /> <br /> Again, do that by parts taking [itex]u= x^2[/itex], [itex]dv= e^{-x}dx[/itex] so that u= 2xdx[/itex] and [itex]v= -e^{-x}[/itex]. Now the integral becomes<br /> [tex]x^2e^{-x}\|_0^\infty + 2\int_0^\inty xe^{-x}dx[/itex]<br /> Again the first term is 0 and the integral is just the integral you did for the first moment!<br /> <br /> Try the same thing for the third and maybe fourth moments. That should tell you how to prove that the kth moment is k! using induction.[/tex][/tex][/tex]
 


Thank you so much!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K