shivaprasadvh
- 23
- 11
Oh you it to be multiplied by 1/m. Thanks for that...Hemant said:You forgot to multiply it by 1/m
Oh you it to be multiplied by 1/m. Thanks for that...Hemant said:You forgot to multiply it by 1/m
Everything is "related" somehow. The question was about specifically about momentum, and why it has the formula mv.shivaprasadvh said:Kinetic Energy and momentum are related.
For a fixed non-zero momentum (mv) I can have any speed I like (greater than zero), any velocity I like (other than zero) and any energy I like (greater than zero).shivaprasadvh said:So like kinetic energy is dependent on equation mv which we call momentum, say speed and velocity are also dependent on equation of mv. So KE was just one example.
Actually, since you dropped them from the same height the final velocity is the same.shivaprasadvh said:Hence the final velocity with which it hits the ground is more
Got it final velocity is same but as the mass is different so the depth with which each penetrates is less and more.Dale said:Actually, since you dropped them from the same height the final velocity is the same.
Through observations, there are several effects which vary with mass and vary with velocity but are the same if the product mv is same. This is observed by physicist. Then they termed this multiplication mv as momentum. It did not happen that momentum = mass * velocity was derived first and then they observed.A.T. said:Everything is "related" somehow. The question was about specifically about momentum, and why it has the formula mv.
For a fixed non zero momentum = Does this mean the mass and velocity of the object remains same throughout or mass and velocity vary such a way that their momentum remains constant?jbriggs444 said:For a fixed non-zero momentum (mv) I can have any speed I like (other than zero), any velocity I like (other than zero) and any energy I like (other than zero).
So does it really make sense to say that any of those quantities are dependent on mv?
You pick a momentum. I am free to pick a mass and a velocity whose product is equal to that momentum.shivaprasadvh said:For a fixed non zero momentum = Does this mean the mass and velocity of the object remains same throughout or mass and velocity vary such a way that their momentum remains constant?
And that only if they're non-zero integers.Dale said:The repeated addition thing is not the definition of multiplication. It is the easiest way to teach multiplication to little children who only know addition. The repeated addition thing only even works for multiplication by integers.
Which effects specifically?shivaprasadvh said:Through observations, there are several effects which vary with mass and vary with velocity but are the same if the product mv is same.
Not sure how you were intending to vary the mass of something . You could throw some away, I guess but then the total momentum would be unchanged (the same as their centre of mass. The fact that you can write a valid equation doesn't mean that it's possible to experiment with varying all the quantities in the equation.shivaprasadvh said:For a fixed non zero momentum = Does this mean the mass and velocity of the object remains same throughout or mass and velocity vary such a way that their momentum remains constant?
The kinetic energy of an object is proportional to the mass of the object and to the square of the object's velocity:jbriggs444 said:For a fixed non-zero momentum (mv) I can have any speed I like (greater than zero), any velocity I like (other than zero) and any energy I like (greater than zero).
So does it really make sense to say that any of those quantities are dependent on mv?
[Thanks to @Hemant for the correction on allowed speeds]
I am not getting that. You've shown that, for fixed momentum, kinetic energy is inversely proportional to mass. Surely that means that each is equally sensitive to the other.sysprog said:##p=mv## so ##v=\frac p m##, and ##K=\frac 1 2mv^2##, so ##K=\frac 1 2m(\frac p m)^2=\frac {p^2} {2m}##.
That means that for a given fixed non-zero momentum, just as a greater mass means a lesser velocity, and a greater velocity means a lesser mass, the kinetic energy 'more sensitively' depends on the mass, and the mass 'less sensitively' depends on the kinetic energy.
That's true of mass and velocity ##-## half the mass means twice the velocity, and half the velocity means twice the mass ##-## but half the mass means four times the kinetic energy (i.e. kinetic energy is 'more sensitive' to decreases in mass than velocity is).jbriggs444 said:I am not getting that. You've shown that, for fixed momentum, kinetic energy is inversely proportional to mass. Surely that means that each is equally sensitive to the other.
If a force is applied for a body with mass 1 kg in such a way that it gets an initial velocity of v m / s. Now if the same force is applied to a body mass with 5 kg then what would happen to the initial velocity. Will it be v m/s or more than that or less than that. The initial velocity achieved will be less than v m / s. So it would happen 1 kg will travel more distance than 5 kg. So we can say the KE for first object is more than KE for second object. So here KE depends on variables m and v.sophiecentaur said:Not sure how you were intending to vary the mass of something . You could throw some away, I guess but then the total momentum would be unchanged (the same as their centre of mass. The fact that you can write a valid equation doesn't mean that it's possible to experiment with varying all the quantities in the equation.
KE is the effect by product of m and v.A.T. said:Which effects specifically?
shivaprasadvh said:Through observations, there are several effects which vary with mass and vary with velocity but are the same if the product mv is same.
A.T. said:Which effects specifically?
But KE is not always the same, when the the product mv is the same. So you have not answered my question at all.shivaprasadvh said:KE is the effect by product of m and v.
1) "Same force is applied" doesn't say much. You have to specify if it is applied over the same time or over the same distance.shivaprasadvh said:If a force is applied for a body with mass 1 kg in such a way that it gets an initial velocity of v m / s. Now if the same force is applied to a body mass with 5 kg then what would happen to the initial velocity. Will it be v m/s or more than that or less than that. The initial velocity achieved will be less than v m / s. So it would happen 1 kg will travel more distance than 5 kg. So we can say the KE for first object is more than KE for second object. So here KE depends on variables m and v.
If I want to give an initial velocity of 10 m / s by applying force F, to an object which is 5 kg. Now if I apply force F to an object with 10 kg will same initial velocity is achieved? (Conditions of friction, direction of force in both the cases are same)?
I am not desperate. I am explaining why it is not m+v and mv.A.T. said:But KE is not always the same, when the the product mv is the same. So you have not answered my question at all.1) "Same force is applied" doesn't say much. You have to specify if it is applied over the same time or over the same distance.
2) "More X means more Y" doesn't say much. You have to specify the exact relationship, not just talk about more or less.
3) Momentum is a vector while KE is a scalar. The total momentum can be zero, while the total KE is some positive value. So the simplistic relationship you are assuming based on a single body doesn't hold in general.
I have no idea why you are so desperate to confuse momentum and KE. It doesn't help in answering the OPs question about the significance of mv at all.
Well, let us go back to see what your formulas have to say about that.sysprog said:That's true of mass and velocity ##-## half the mass means twice the velocity, and half the velocity means twice the mass ##-## but half the mass means four times the kinetic energy (i.e. kinetic energy is 'more sensitive' to decreases in mass than velocity is).
Look at that last equation:$$K=\frac{p^2}{2m}$$sysprog said:##p=mv## so ##v=\frac p m##, and ##K=\frac 1 2mv^2##, so ##K=\frac 1 2m(\frac p m)^2=\frac {p^2} {2m}##.
The product m2v also "has an impact on KE". Why is momentum defined as mv and not m2v?shivaprasadvh said:So product of mv i.e. momentum has an impact on KE.
jbriggs444 said:For fixed momentum... Half the mass means four times the velocity. But half the mass only means two times the kinetic energy. You get a times 4 factor for velocity but a divide by two factor for the mass.
##F=ma##, so for 5 kg and 10 m/s2 the force is 50 N, and the velocity of the 5 kg after 1 second would be 10 m/s. If the mass were 10 kg the same 50 N force would produce an acceleration of 5 m/s2, and the velocity of the 10 kg after 1 second would be 5 m/s.shivaprasadvh said:If I want to give an initial velocity of 10 m / s by applying force F, to an object which is 5 kg. Now if I apply force F to an object with 10 kg will same initial velocity is achieved? (Conditions of friction, direction of force in both the cases are same)?