- #1
olgerm
Gold Member
- 472
- 26
Is it true that by multiplying wavefunction with arbitrary complexnumber, which module is 1, results another wavefunction, that has same physical meaning? aka ##\forall_\phi(\Psi\ has\ the\ same\ meaning\ as\ \Psi \cdot e^{i \cdot \phi})##
If not please give me an example of wavefunction and ##\phi## where it does not.
If not please give me an example of wavefunction and ##\phi## where it does not.