Need help deciphering this number theory problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a number theory problem involving ideals in ring theory, specifically the meaning of certain notations and concepts such as "triangle line" and equivalence modulo an ideal.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster seeks clarification on the meaning of "triangle line" and the notation "+" for sets. Some participants provide definitions and examples related to ideals and their operations. Questions are raised about the concept of equivalence modulo an ideal and the solvability of certain systems of congruences.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the concepts, providing definitions and examples. There is a mix of clarifying questions and responses, indicating a productive exploration of the topic without reaching a consensus on all points.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing specific notations and definitions within the context of number theory and ring theory, with some assumptions about the reader's familiarity with these concepts. There is mention of a specific system of congruences that raises questions about solvability.

1MileCrash
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Homework Statement



What does triangle line mean? What is "+" for sets here?

Once I know that, if I need assistance, I will show an attempt. Otherwise I will be satisfied. :)

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 

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The triangle means "is ideal of". So ##K_1## and ##K_2## are ideals of ##R##. We then define

[tex]K_1 + K_2 = \{a+b~\vert~a\in K_1,~b\in K_2\}[/tex]

This is again an ideal of the ring.
 
Ok, and while we're at it, what on Earth does equivalence mod "an ideal" mean? Does it mean the full set of equivalences for all elements in an ideal?

I am referring to the statement "x =K1 a." I just realized the picture is sideways.

And why is it stating that "if the following system is solvable.." since when is a system of congruences with coefficients of 1 ever not solvable?

Thank you.
 
1MileCrash said:
Ok, and while we're at it, what on Earth does equivalence mod "an ideal" mean? Does it mean the full set of equivalences for all elements in an ideal?

I am referring to the statement "x =K1 a." I just realized the picture is sideways.

It means ##x-a\in K_1##.

And why is it stating that "if the following system is solvable.." since when is a system of congruences with coefficients of 1 ever not solvable?

For example, the system ##x\equiv_2 0##, ##x\equiv_2 1## is not solvable. This is equivalence modulo the ideal ##2\mathbb{Z}##.
 
Alrighty, thanks for filling in the gaps for me, hah!
 

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