Notation in Ch. 10 of Nakahara

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the notation and concepts presented in section 10.1.3 of Nakahara's book, specifically regarding Lie algebra-valued one forms in the context of principal G-bundles. Participants express confusion about the definitions and operations involving the exterior derivative and how they relate to the structure of the bundle and the Lie group.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about the term involving the exterior derivative acting on the group element \( g_i \) and questions how it can be well-defined in the context of Lie algebra-valued one forms.
  • Another participant asserts that \( g^{-1} dg \) is a Lie-algebra-valued one-form, but does not clarify how this relates to the original poster's confusion.
  • A different participant suggests starting from the exponential map to understand the local structure of the Lie group, indicating a potential pathway to clarify the notation.
  • One participant elaborates on the relationship between the exterior derivative and the tangent space, suggesting that the exterior derivative on \( P \) acts on elements of \( G \) through a projection into a vertical subspace defined by the section.
  • A later reply proposes that \( d_Pg \) should be understood as the differential of the map \( g: P \rightarrow G \), which could clarify the notation and its application.
  • Another participant summarizes their understanding, suggesting that the left action of \( g^{-1} \) transforms elements in the tangent space of \( G \) to the Lie algebra, indicating a deeper grasp of the concepts involved.
  • One participant reflects on the confusion surrounding the notation and offers a clearer interpretation, suggesting that the notation used by Nakahara may be misleading and that other sources provide a more straightforward explanation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally express confusion and seek clarification on the notation and definitions used in Nakahara's text. There are multiple competing views on how to interpret the exterior derivative and its application, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the notation and definitions in Nakahara's book may not be sufficiently clear, leading to misunderstandings about the operations involved. There is a reliance on specific definitions and assumptions that may not be explicitly stated in the text.

Bballer152
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Hi All,

I'm extremely confused by what's going on in section 10.1.3, pg 377 of the 2nd edition of Nakahara, in regards to his notation for lie algebra-valued one forms.

We let [tex]\{U_i\}[/tex] be an open covering of a smooth manifold [tex]M[/tex] and let [tex]\sigma_i[/tex] be a local section of M into the principle G-bundle P defined on each element in the covering. We also let [tex]A_i[/tex] be a Lie-algebra-valued one form on each [tex]U_i.[/tex]

We then want to construct a Lie-algebra-valued one-form on P using this data, and we do so by defining [tex]\omega_i \equiv g_i^{-1}\pi^*A_ig_i + g_i^{-1}\mathrm{d}_Pg_i[/tex] where [tex]d_P[/tex] is the exterior derivative on P and [tex]g_i[/tex] is the canonical local trivialization defined by [tex]\phi_i^{-1}(u)=(p,g_i)[/tex] for [tex]u=\sigma_i(p)g_i.[/tex]

What I don't understand is the second term in the definition of [tex]\omega_i.[/tex] I don't understand what the exterior derivative is acting on there. He writes it as if it's acting directly on the group element [tex]g_i\in G[/tex] and later writes terms like [tex]\mathrm{d}_Pg_i(\sigma_{i*}X),[/tex] where [tex]X\in T_pM[/tex] and [tex]\sigma_{i*}[/tex] is the push-forward so that [tex]\sigma_{i*}X \in T_{\sigma_i(p)}P[/tex] as if [tex]\mathrm{d}_Pg_i[/tex] is itself a Lie algebra-valued one-form, which I simply don't understand at all. It just doesn't seem well defined and I see no way of making sense of that expression. Thanks so much in advance for any clarification as to what that term is doing, i.e., how it takes in a vector in the tangent space of some point in P and spits out an element of the lie algebra of G.
 
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##dg## is not a Lie-algebra valued 1-form, but ##g^{-1} dg## is.
 
How so? I don't see how that expression specifies an action sending tangent vectors to Lie-algebra elements...
 
Near any (constant) Lie group element ##g_0##, a local neighborhood of the Lie group can be expanded via the exponential map

[tex]g = g_0 e^{tX}, \qquad X \in \mathfrak{g}[/tex]
Why don't you start from there?
 
Well I understand how this gives a Lie-algebra valued one-form on G itself, but I don't see how it does on the full bundle P. For example, on the next page, Nakahara says that [tex]\mathrm{d}_Pg_i(\sigma_{i*}X)=0 \mathrm{\ since\ } g\equiv e \mathrm{\ along\ } \sigma_{i*}X,[/tex] and again I have no clue how to make since of the expression [tex]\mathrm{d}_Pg_i(\sigma_{i*}X).[/tex] I've scoured his book and found nothing like it, it really seems to come out of nowhere.
 
In particular, here is precisely what I don't understand. The argument of [tex]\mathrm{d}_Pg_i(\sigma_{i*}X)[/tex] is a tangent vector on P, which means that the thing that is acting on it should have some kind of "1-form" quality to it, which is good because the thing acting on it is the exterior derivative of something, which smells a lot like a one-form. But how can the exterior derivative on P act on an element g_i in G?? There must be something hiding behind that notation that I'm missing, because this reasoning leads me to a complete and utter roadblock.
 
Clearly ##g_i## is a map from somewhere into ##G##. That is, ##g_i : \mathcal{X} \to G##. I think your question will be answered if you work out what ##\mathcal{X}## is. It should turn out to be a space where the exterior derivative makes sense.
 
Okay, I think I've got it, now let's see if I can put it into words (and thanks, by the way, for the patience/hints).

We use the notation of the first post above. Namely, [itex]\phi_i:U_i\times G\rightarrow \pi^{-1}(U_i)[/itex] is the local trivialization such that [itex]\phi_i(p,g)=\sigma_i(p)g[/itex] with the usual right action of [itex]g[/itex] on the right hand side there. Then [itex]g:\pi^{-1}(U_i)\rightarrow G[/itex] (or equivalently but less rigorously [itex]g:U_i \times G\rightarrow G[/itex]) where [itex]\sigma_i(p)g \mapsto g[/itex] (the abuse of notation is purposeful to highlight the "canonical-ness" of this), and this is well defined because everything in [itex]\pi^{-1}(U_i)[/itex] can be expressed as [itex]\sigma_i(p)g[/itex] for some [itex]p[/itex] and [itex]g[/itex].

Now we know that the exterior derivative works on the domain of [itex]g[/itex], but we have to modify it a bit because [itex]g[/itex] is not [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex]-valued and therefore not a true function for the exterior derivative to act on. Thus, we say that [itex]\mathrm{d}_Pg:T_{\sigma_i(p)g}P\rightarrow T_gG[/itex] defined by [itex]X\mapsto vert(X)[/itex] where [itex]vert(X)[/itex] is the projection into the vertical subspace defined by the section [itex]\sigma_i[/itex] as the complement of the pushforward [itex]\sigma_{i*}Y[/itex] of all [itex]Y\in T_pM[/itex]. Then [itex]g^{-1}\mathrm{d}g[/itex] is a Lie-algebra valued one-form because the left action of [itex]g^{-1}[/itex] takes the element in [itex]T_gG[/itex] to something in [itex]T_eG\simeq \mathfrak{g}[/itex].

That's really the only way I can make sense of this whole thing, so hopefully it's not too far off!
 
I realize this post is almost two years old, but this is a really confusing notation, and the 'hints' in this thread weren't too useful. Since I eventually figured out how to understand this I thought I would post to help those in the same situation who might stumble on this thread through a search.

Even though Nakahara says ##d_Pg## is an "exterior derivative" it is better to understand it as the differential of the map ##g : P\rightarrow G##. In other words it is the pushforward [tex]dg \equiv g_\star : T_uP \rightarrow T_g G.[/tex] Perhaps it indeed can be understood as an exterior derivative of a Lie algebra-valued form. But other sources are more clear it is a pushforward (mathematicians use the notation ##d## in both cases), and this is easier for me to understand. The original poster came to a similar conclusion himself.

So the definition
[tex] \omega_i \equiv g_i^{-1}\pi^*A_ig_i + g_i^{-1}\mathrm{d}_Pg_i[/tex]
really means
[tex] \omega_i \equiv \text{Ad}_{g_i^{-1}}\pi^*A_i+ L_{g_i^{-1}\star}g_{i\star}[/tex]
where ##L_{g_i^{-1}\star}## is the pushforward of the left-translation which takes ## T_{g_i} G \rightarrow T_e G = \mathfrak{g}##. If you use this definition, Nakahara's proofs that ##\omega## has the required properties are easy to follow.
 
  • #10
Well, even though my reply is close to a year late, I thought you should know that I've read this response and I love it, THANK YOU. It all makes sense now :)
 

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