haruspex said:
Thanks for confirming that, but the intriguing question is why the integral at the start of post#1 gives the wrong answer.
I think I can see two problems with the reasoning in the OP.
(1) The third equation line in section 3 reads:
$$
N=\int_0^T\tilde{f}(t)\,\mathrm{d}t=f\int_{-\frac{\pi}{\omega}}^\frac{\pi}{\omega}\frac{v_s\,\mathrm{d}t}{v_s-v_0\cos\omega t}.
$$
There is no justification for the change in the integral limits, since the integration variable has not changed. The limits should still be 0 and T, where T is also equal to ##2\pi/\omega##.
The limits upon the change of integrator to ##\theta## should be 0 and ##\omega T = 2\pi##, not ##-\pi## and ##\pi## as shown.
Then upon change of integrator to ##\phi## the limits should become 0 and ##\pi##. This range includes a point where cos is zero, while the range in the OP (##(-\pi/2,\pi/2)##) does not, a fact which will be important to the next observation.
(2) The sixth equation line in section 3 reads:
$$N ...
=\frac{2v_sf}{\omega}\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\sec^2\phi\,\mathrm{d}\phi}{\sec^2\phi[(v_s-v_0)\cos^2\phi+(v_s+v_0)\sin^2\phi]}
=\frac{2v_sf}{\omega}\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\sec^2\phi\,\mathrm{d}\phi}{(v_s-v_0)+(v_s+v_0)\tan^2\phi}.
$$
This step involves dividing both numerator and denominator by ##\cos^2\phi##, which is zero at a point in the
correct integration range (see point (1)), in which case the operation is an invalid division by zero.
Given those problems, I see no reason to expect the reasoning to lead to a correct answer.