Object sliding on inclined plane whose angle increases

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the motion of a particle sliding on a smooth inclined plane with an increasing angle of inclination, represented as ##\theta(t) = \omega t##. The Lagrangian mechanics approach is utilized, leading to two different expressions for the particle's position, ##r(t) = \frac{g\sin (\omega t)}{2 \omega^2} + r_0\coth \omega t - \frac{g}{2\omega^2}\sinh \omega t## and ##r(t) = \frac{g \sin \omega t}{2 \omega^2} + r_0##. The discussion concludes that treating ##\theta## as a generalized coordinate is inappropriate, as it does not yield a consistent solution compared to using ##r## as the sole generalized coordinate.

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Incand
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Homework Statement


I have a question that came up during a mechanics problem. (I put my question towards the end of the post)

A particle slides on a smooth inclined plane whose inclination ##\theta## is increasing at a constant rate ##\omega##. If ##\theta(t=0)=0## at which time the particle starts from rest, find the motion of the particle.

Homework Equations


##\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot q} - \frac{\partial L}{\partial q} = 0##

The Attempt at a Solution


Using polar coordinates for the position of the particle the Lagrangian is
##L = \frac{m}{2}\left(\dot r^2 +r^2\dot \theta^2 \right) -mgr\sin \theta##
Inserting this in L.E. we get
##m\ddot r -mr\dot \theta^2 + mg \sin \theta = 0##
Since ##\theta = \omega t## this describes the motion of the particle.
Solving this gives
##r(t) = \frac{g\sin (\omega t)}{2 \omega^2} + r_0\coth \omega t - \frac{g}{2\omega^2}\sinh \omega t##

Now my question is that what if we instead take L.E. in terms of ##\theta## then
##2mr \dot \theta \dot r - mr g \cos \theta = 0 \Longrightarrow \dot r =\frac{g}{2 \omega} \cos \omega t##
with the solution ##r(t) = \frac{g \sin \omega t}{2 \omega^2} + r_0##
This solution is pretty close to the other one but not identical. Is the problem here that ##\theta## isn't a generalised coordinate for this problem so doing this doesn't make any sense and it's just coincidence?
 
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In your first part, ##r## only is the generalized coordinate.
In the second part you phantasize: 'LE in terms of ##\theta##' means ##r## and ##\dot r## are givens ?
And you don't solve for ##\theta## but you impose ##\theta= \omega t## ?
 
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BvU said:
In your first part, ##r## only is the generalized coordinate.
In the second part you phantasize: 'LE in terms of ##\theta##' means ##r## and ##\dot r## are givens ?
And you don't solve for ##\theta## but you impose ##\theta= \omega t## ?
Thanks! That's the confirmation I was looking for!
 

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