Order of group elements ab and ba

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the orders of the group elements ab and ba are equal. The proof begins with the equation (ab)^{x} = 1 and utilizes associativity to derive (ba)^{x} = 1, establishing that both elements share the same order. Participants clarify that while the initial proof shows that the order of ba divides the order of ab, further work is necessary to confirm their equality. Ultimately, the conclusion is reached that ord(ab) = ord(ba) based on the reciprocal divisibility of their orders.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory concepts, specifically group orders
  • Familiarity with the properties of group elements and their inverses
  • Knowledge of associativity in group operations
  • Basic experience with mathematical proofs in abstract algebra
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This discussion is beneficial for students of abstract algebra, mathematicians focusing on group theory, and educators teaching the properties of group elements and their orders.

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Homework Statement



Prove that in any group the orders of ab and ba equal.

Homework Equations



n/a

The Attempt at a Solution



Let (ab)^{x} = 1.

Using associativity, we get

(ab)^{x} = a(ba)^{x-1}b = 1.

Because of the existence of inverses--namely a^{-1} and b^{-1}--this implies

(ba)^{x-1} = a^{-1}b^{-1} = (ba)^{-1}.

Multiplying both sides by (ba) = ((ba)^{-1})^{-1} yields

(ba)^{x} = 1.

So,

(ab)^{x} = (ba)^{x} = 1,

and the orders ab and ba are the same.

---

How is that?
 
Last edited:
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Looks correct.
 
Thanks!
 
Well, technically you only proved that
(ba)^{\mathop{\mathrm{ord}}(ab)} = 1
which leads to the conclusion that the order of ba is a divisor of the order of ab. You have to do a little bit more work to prove they are equal.
 
Ahhh, I see... I think. So, if (ab)^{x} = (ba)^{x} = 1, then ord(ba) divides ord(ab), AND ord(ab) divides ord(ba). Thus, ord(ab) = ord(ba)?
 
Right. It's important to pay attention to the difference between proving the order is equal to something, and the order simply divides something. I know I've made mistakes before by messing that up.
 
Thanks for your help and advice.
 
Hi,
I don't understand the step that goes:
Using associativity, we get
(ab)^{x} = a(ba)^{x-1}b = 1.
Could someone elaborate, thanks!
 
sairalouise said:
Hi,
I don't understand the step that goes:
Using associativity, we get
(ab)^{x} = a(ba)^{x-1}b = 1.
Could someone elaborate, thanks!
So I know where you're coming from... what have you done to try and understand it? Have you worked through any special cases? Made attempts at proving it?
 
  • #10
I can show that the orders of an element and its inverse are equal, and have tried supposing that ab and ba have different orders to reach a contradiciton but i can't work the problem though.
 
  • #11
sairalouise said:
I can show that the orders of an element and its inverse are equal, and have tried supposing that ab and ba have different orders to reach a contradiciton but i can't work the problem though.
I meant the specific line you were asking about:
(ab)^{x} = a(ba)^{x-1}b​
 
  • #12
i just don't see how to get from one side of the equation to the other.
 
  • #13
Hey, now i can!
 
  • #14
is saying (ab)^{x} = 1. the same as saying (ab)^{x} = e?
 
  • #15
Firepanda said:
is saying (ab)^{x} = 1. the same as saying (ab)^{x} = e?

Can someone confirm this for me please? it would greatly help my understanding
 
  • #16
Yes and no. You can name the identity element of a group whatever you want, just like you can name the group operation whatever you want, as well as the inverse operation. The identity in antiemptyv's group was named '1'. That group doesn't have any elements named 'e', so <br /> (ab)^{x} = e<br /> can't even make sense.
 
  • #17
antiemptyv said:
Ahhh, I see... I think. So, if (ab)^{x} = (ba)^{x} = 1, then ord(ba) divides ord(ab), AND ord(ab) divides ord(ba). Thus, ord(ab) = ord(ba)?

I hope I don't get a warning for necro-posting but I was doing research on order of elements of a group and came across this.

Hurkyl's comment that we only proved that |ba|= x means |ba| | x and not equal x.

But the proof that it is equal appeas to be weak.

So we're saying (ba)x=(ab)x = e implies |ba| | |ab| and |ab| | |ba| which makes them equal. seems weak to me.

Let |ba| = d s.t. d < x and x = k.d for some pos. integer k, then surely d ≠ x.

any ideas?
 

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