Oscillations of a ruler on a cylinder

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the oscillatory motion of a ruler resting on a cylindrical body, exploring the conditions under which the ruler exhibits simple harmonic motion. The participants examine the implications of the ruler's center of mass and the role of friction in maintaining equilibrium during slight displacements.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conditions for the ruler's oscillation, questioning why it does not fall immediately and how its center of mass behaves during displacement. There is exploration of the energy conservation principle and the role of friction in the system. Some participants express uncertainty about specific assumptions regarding the center of mass and the application of the small angle approximation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications on the assumptions made regarding the ruler's motion. Some guidance on using torque equations versus energy methods has been offered, and there is acknowledgment of the need for careful consideration of the moment of inertia and its implications in the context of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note uncertainties regarding the assumptions made about the ruler's center of mass and the effects of friction. There is also mention of the limitations of the small angle approximation and its impact on the analysis of the system.

benf.stokes
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Homework Statement



You have ruler of length L and thickness 2d resting, in equilibrium , on a cylindrical body of radius r. Slightly unbalancing the ruler, and existing attrition between the surfaces prove that the ruler has a oscillatory motion of period:
[tex]T = 2\cdot \pi\cdot \sqrt{\frac{L^2}{12\cdot g\cdot (r-d)}}[/tex]

SemTtulo.jpg


Homework Equations



[tex]T=\frac{2\cdot \pi}{\omega}[/tex]

[tex]\tau= F\cdot r\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I can't wrap my mind about the idea that the ruler won't immediately begin to fall. I can't figure out why the ruler would do a simple harmonic motion in the first place.
 
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Hi benf.stokes! :smile:
benf.stokes said:
… I can't wrap my mind about the idea that the ruler won't immediately begin to fall. I can't figure out why the ruler would do a simple harmonic motion in the first place.

If the ruler doesn't slip, then when it tilts to the right, its centre of mass will be on the left of the point of contact. :wink:
 
Hi tiny-tim :smile:. Thanks for the help
I think I figured it out but I have three assumptions I'm not completely happy about and would like you to see if they're valid:

Initially the center of mass of the ruler is at position [tex]y_{c} = R+d[/tex] and after the ruler is displaced the center of mass of the ruler is at

[tex]y_{c'}=R\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)+(R+d)\cdot \cos(\varphi)[/tex]

(I'm not really sure about the: [tex]R\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex], sometimes I think it should be [tex](R+d)\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex] but if I do so I don't obtain the correct result any more, is this right?).

The frictional force in this case does no work since it's only role is to prevent slipping (I'm I correct?) and so the total energy of the ruler is conserved. And so:

[tex]m\cdot g\cdot y_{c}= m\cdot g\cdot y_{c'}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot I\cdot \omega^2[/tex]
(This is my last uncertainty: is it ok to not take into account the velocity of the center of mass of the ruler?)

Then and using the small angle approximation :
[tex]\sin(\varphi)\approx \varphi \ and \ \cos(\varphi)\approx\ 1-\frac{\varphi^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex]m\cdot g\cdot (R-d)\cdot \frac{\varphi^2}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot I\cdot (\frac{d\varphi}{dt})^2=0[/tex]

And derivating this expression with respect to time yields:

[tex]m\cdot g\cdot (R-d)\cdot \varphi\cdot \frac{d\varphi}{dt}+I\cdot \frac{d^2\varphi}{dt^2}\cdot \frac{d\varphi}{dt}=0[/tex]

Which after some algebric manipulation yields:

[tex]\frac{m\cdot g\cdot (R-d)}{I}\cdot \varphi + \frac{d^2\varphi}{dt^2}=0[/tex]

Which is the equation for SHM with the desired period.

Note:
[tex]I_{ruler}=\frac{1}{12}\cdot m\cdot l^2[/tex]
 
Last edited:
benf.stokes said:
Hi tiny-tim.
I think I figured it out but I have three assumptions I'm not completely happy about and would like you to see if they're valid:

Initially the center of mass of the ruler is at position [tex]y_{c} = R+d[/tex] and after the ruler is displaced the center of mass of the ruler is at

[tex]y_{c'}=R\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)+(R+d)\cdot \cos(\varphi)[/tex]
(I'm not really sure about the:
[tex]R\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex], sometimes I think it should be [tex](R+d)\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex] but if I do so I don't obtain the correct result any more).

The frictional force in this case does no work since it's only role is to prevent slipping (I'm I correct?) and so the total energy of the ruler is conserved. And so:

[tex]m\cdot g\cdot y_{c}= m\cdot g\cdot y_{c'}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot I\cdot \omega^2[/tex]
(This is my last uncertainty: is it ok to not take into account the velocity of the center of mass of the ruler?)

Then and using the small angle approximation :
[tex]\sin(\varphi)\approx \varphi \ and \ \cos(\varphi)\approx\ 1-\frac{\varphi^2}{2}[/tex]

[tex]m\cdot g\cdot (R-d)\cdot \frac{\varphi^2}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot (\frac{d\varphi}{dt})^2=0[/tex]

The small angle approximation assumes that the ruler's center of mass moves only slightly, so neglecting the KE associated with the center of mass is fine (Though a more rigorous analysis is required to prove this point)

If you want to work around the pitfall of neglecting the KE of the CoM, look at the forces and torques acting on the center of mass of the ruler instead, there the approximations should be a bit more straightforward.
 
Hi benf.stokes! :smile:

(have a phi: φ :wink:)
benf.stokes said:
(I'm not really sure about the:
[tex]R\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex], sometimes I think it should be [tex](R+d)\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi)[/tex] but if I do so I don't obtain the correct result any more).

it's definitely Rφsinφ, not (R + d)φsinφ, because the distance along the bottom of the ruler is Rφ (because it's rolling).
The frictional force in this case does no work since it's only role is to prevent slipping (I'm I correct?) and so the total energy of the ruler is conserved.

That's absolutely right :smile:, but

why use energy, with its awkward squared terms (and yes, you do need the c.o.m. KE also), when you can use the much simpler torque equation? :wink:
 
Thanks. I tried to use a simple torque equation first but I just couldn't find an appropriate axis
 
When you're dealing with rotating bodies, general rule is to use either the centre of mass or the instantaneous centre of rotation …

and in this case the latter will eliminate the unknown reaction force. :wink:
 
But won't the instantaneous center of rotation introduce a new component in the moment of inertia?
 
You'll need to use the parallel axis theorem to find the moment of inertia … is that what you meant?
 
  • #10
Yes. I tried that approach first but it the parallel axis theorem introduced an additional term I couldn't solve.
 
Last edited:
  • #11
Wait, I think I got it:

The moment of inertia about the new axis will be:

[tex]I_{ruler'}=\frac{1}{12}\cdot m\cdot l^2+m\cdot (R\cdot \varphi\cdot \sin(\varphi))^2[/tex]

but since where're using the small angle approximation the second part will be very small compared to the first term?

If this is so the torque equation makes complete sense and yields the desired result
 
  • #12
(just finished watching the latest Dr Who :biggrin:)

benf.stokes said:
… since where're using the small angle approximation the second part will be very small compared to the first term?

That's right! :smile:

(except technically you left out an md2, but that will also be very small unless it's a horribly thick ruler :wink:)
 
  • #13
Yupi :cool: .Thanks you very much tiny-tim. Very helpful :smile:
 

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