<p> Operator on Probability Density in X-Space

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the expectation value of momentum,

, for a particle described by a specific wave function in position space. The wave function is piecewise defined, and the problem involves applying the momentum operator in quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to calculate

    by applying the momentum operator to the probability density and integrating. They express uncertainty about their approach and results.

  • Some participants question the application of the momentum operator, suggesting that it should be applied to the wave function before taking the inner product with its conjugate.
  • Others clarify the correct mathematical formulation for expectation values in quantum mechanics, emphasizing the operator's placement between the wave functions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the correct application of the momentum operator. There is recognition of a misunderstanding in the original poster's approach, and guidance has been offered regarding the proper mathematical framework for calculating expectation values.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes missing lecture material and relies on alternative resources for understanding the topic. This context may influence their grasp of the material and the discussion's direction.

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Homework Statement


Consider a particle whose wave function is:

[tex]\Psi(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ccc} <br /> 2\alpha^{3/2}xe^{-\alpha x} & \text{if} & x> 0\\ <br /> 0 & \text{if} & x\leq 0<br /> \end{array}\right.[/tex]

Calculate <p> using the [tex]\hat{p}[/tex] operator on probability density in x space.


Homework Equations



[tex]\hat{p}=-i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial x}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


So I'm pretty sure I'm missing something, I figured since you take the derivative then do the integral, they will "cancel" each other, then you can just evaluate -ih|Psi|^2 from 0 to infinity, in which case you get 0. Here is my work:

[tex]<p> =\int_{0}^{\infty}\hat{p}|\Psi(x)|^{2}dx=\int_{0}^{\infty}-i \hbar 4\alpha^{3} \frac{\partial}{\partial x} x^{2} e^{-2 \alpha x}dx=-i \hbar 4\alpha^{3}\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\partial}{\partial x} x^{2} e^{-2 \alpha x}dx[/tex]

Then when you take the derivative, then integrate it over that range:

[tex]=-i \hbar 4\alpha^{3} x^{2} e^{-2 \alpha x}|_{0}^{\infty}=0[/tex]

And when you evaluate this it goes to 0, did I do something wrong? TBH, I did miss this lecture, and unfortunately my professor forgot to record it like he usually does, so I had to take notes from his PowerPoint, as well as a friend. If it matters, I have already found <p>, but only after I did the Fourier Transform from the position space. It turned out to be:

[tex]<p> =\frac{-\alpha \hbar}{3\pi}[/tex]

If I did it correctly. So can anyone give me insight on what I did wrong? Any help is appreciated.
 
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$$\langle \hat{p}\rangle = \int_0^\infty \psi^\star (x)\hat{p}\psi (x) dx$$ ... spot the difference.
 
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Oh, I see my problem, thank you, so I need to apply the p operator to psi before multiplying by the conjugate?
 
That's the one - the relation you used only works for operators like position.
In general, the operator goes in between the wavefunctions.

In Dirac notation: <Q>=<ψ|Q|ψ>
 
Yes, and the complete derivation is as follows
[tex]\langle A \rangle =\langle \psi|\mathbf{A}| \psi \rangle= \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \langle \psi|x \rangle \langle x|\mathbf{A}|\psi \rangle = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \; \psi^*(x) \hat{A} \psi(x).[/tex]
Note that there is a subtle difference in my use of symbols. While [itex]\mathbf{A}[/itex] is the operator representing the observable [itex]A[/itex] in abstract (basis independent) Hilbert space, [itex]\hat{A}[/itex] denotes the representation of the operator in position representation. Your equation for [itex]\hat{p}[/itex] is of course correct.
 

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