Are Partial Derivatives Commutative for Functions of Multiple Variables?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the commutativity of partial derivatives for functions of multiple variables, specifically examining the expression \(\frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \frac{\partial g}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2}\). It is established that this statement holds true when \(f\) and \(g\) are standard functions, such as \(f(x) = x^2\). However, the commutativity fails when \(f\) and \(g\) are matrices, as matrix multiplication is generally non-commutative. The discussion also clarifies the distinction between the original question and a more complex expression involving derivatives acting on products of functions.

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Kyle.Nemeth
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Homework Statement


I would just like to know if this statement is true.

Homework Equations


\frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \frac{\partial g}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2}

The Attempt at a Solution


I've thought about this a bit and I haven't come to a conclusion. Thanks for the help! :smile:
 
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Well, it depends on ##f## and ##g## and not so on the partial derivative. If ##f## and ##g## are "normal" functions like ##f(x)=x^2## for example, then the statement is true. On the other hand, if they represent matrices then generally they wouldn't commute, ie. ##f\cdot g\neq g\cdot f## because ##g## and ##f## do not commute generally.
 
Kyle.Nemeth said:

Homework Statement


I would just like to know if this statement is true.

Homework Equations


\frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \frac{\partial g}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \frac {\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2}

The Attempt at a Solution


I've thought about this a bit and I haven't come to a conclusion. Thanks for the help! :smile:

If you set ##A = \partial g/\partial x## and ##B = \partial^2 f/\partial x^2##, you have written ##A B = B A##, which is true for any two real numbers.

However, if what you really meant was to have
\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left( g \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} \right)
on one side and
\frac{\partial^2} {\partial x^2} \left( f \frac{\partial g}{\partial x} \right)
on the other, then that is a much different question.

Which did you mean?
 
I intended for the original question you had answered about AB=BA for any real number. I was assuming that the second derivative had acted on f and the first derivative had acted on g.
 

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