Hello, Rorshach. I don't understand "by leveraging development coefficients" in part (c), so I don't think I can help much.
You've already calculated ##<\hat{p}^2>##, so once you determine ##<p>## you will easily be able to get ##\Delta p##.
Note that the wavefunction ##\psi## is an even function about ##x = a/2##. Since ##\hat{p}## is proportional to the derivative operator, you should be able to argue that ##\hat{p} \psi## is an odd function about ##x = a/2##. So, if you set up the integral for ##<\hat{p}>## you should be able to conclude what the answer is without actually carrying out the integration. But that doesn't appear to be the way you are expected to do it.
I will bring this problem to the attention of some of the other helpers.
I guess you don't have access to the person who made the question. It would be nice if you could get clarification on what he/she meant for you do do here.