Particle in an infinite potential well

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The discussion revolves around calculating the uncertainty in a particle's position within an infinite potential well, specifically showing that it is less than the width of the well divided by n. The participant initially struggles with the application of the uncertainty principle and arrives at an incorrect expression for position uncertainty. After some clarification, it is confirmed that the uncertainty in position is indeed less than L/n. The conversation highlights the importance of correctly applying the uncertainty principle and understanding the relationships between momentum and position in quantum mechanics. The conclusion reinforces that the uncertainties align with the expected theoretical framework.
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Homework Statement



The nth energy level for a particle of mass m confined in an infinite potential well is given by:

45c2b9fd81beaf323e353898e6ee4095.png


where L is the width of the well and h is Planck’s constant. Assuming that the uncertainty in the particle’s momentum is equal to the momentum itself, show that the uncertainty in the particle’s position is less than the width of the well by a factor of n.

Homework Equations



Uncertainty principle?

The Attempt at a Solution



I don't really know where to start. Help!
 
Last edited:
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I have an idea of what I'm doing now, although I've got my answer as change in x <= L/(2*pi*n) instead of L/n which seems to be what the question expects.

My method was to sub in change in P = p into the uncertainty principle, then sub that into the equation given. Then i just rearranged. What am i doing wrong?

I'm also assuming all the values are positive so the less than sign doesn't have to be flipped?
 
Last edited:
Your answer seems correct, as far as I can tell.
 
Redbelly98 said:
Your answer seems correct, as far as I can tell.

Oh ok thanks. I guess my answers still in agreement that the uncertainties less than 1/n * L.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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