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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi there,

I am reading an article, but I faced the following problem, and I am wondering if it is well known fact.

If the integral of a function on some interval is infinity, can we partition this interval into countable disjoint (in their interiors) subintervals such that the integral on each interval is 1/2 for example?

Thanks in advance

Likemath

I am reading an article, but I faced the following problem, and I am wondering if it is well known fact.

If the integral of a function on some interval is infinity, can we partition this interval into countable disjoint (in their interiors) subintervals such that the integral on each interval is 1/2 for example?

Thanks in advance

Likemath