Passing the limit through the derivative of a differentiable function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuity of the derivative of a differentiable function on an open interval. The original poster attempts to show that for a differentiable function f on an interval I, there exists a sequence converging to a point x* such that the limit of the derivatives at those points equals the derivative at x*.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the assumption that the derivative of a differentiable function is continuous, citing a counterexample. Others suggest working from first principles and applying the definition of the derivative to find a suitable sequence. There is also mention of using the Mean Value Theorem to approach the problem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of the problem and suggesting various approaches. Some guidance has been offered regarding the application of the Mean Value Theorem and the need to consider the continuity of the function.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the continuity of the function in relation to the limits being discussed. There is also mention of specific sequences and their behavior as they converge to the point x*.

kbgregory
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Homework Statement



Suppose f is differentiable on an open interval I and let x* \in I. Show that there exists a sequence {x_n}\subset I such that lim[n->inf]{x_n}=x* and lim[n->inf]{f'(x_n)}=f'(x*).


Homework Equations



We know that a function g is continuous iff for any sequence {x_n} with lim[n->inf]{x_n}=x*, lim[n->inf]{g(x_n)}=g(x*).

The Attempt at a Solution



I think I need to show that since f is differentiable on I, then its derivative is continuous on I, and since its derivative is continuous on I, then there exists a sequence {x_n} with lim[n->inf]{x_n}=x* for which lim[n->inf]{f'(x_n)}=f'(x*).

But I am not sure how to show this, or even if its right.
 
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No, f differentiable on I does not imply its derivative is continuous. The canonical counterexample is f(x) = (x^2)*sin(1/x) if x =/= 0 and f(x) = 0 if x = 0.

In the conclusion, you have a double limit. There is a certain procedure to apply to these limits that would make the problem very simple. The continuity of f would be essential in this case.

But I think it's probably more illuminating to work from first principles. Write out the definition of the derivative of f at x* (epsilon-delta definition of limit), pick a specific sequence converging to x*, and make the appropriate modifications to your definition to show the conclusion.
 
I did what snipez90 said, but I got stuck. I know that it is necessary to apply the Mean Value Theorem, but I don't really understand how. Maybe you can figure out how the MVT can be applied.
 
Take your x \in I. You know that there is a sequence of positive numbers, h_n such that \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} h_n = 0. Thus \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f(x + h_n) - f(x)}{h_n} = f'(x).

Now look at the difference quotient [f(x + h_n) - f(x)] / h_n . By the MVT [f(x + h_n) - f(x)] / h_n = f'(c_n) for x < c_n < x + h_n

As n goes to infinity that difference quotient gets closer and closer to the derivative of f at x, right? So what can you say about the sequence f'(c_n)?
 

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