- #1

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I have a PDE like:

A * d2w/dy2 + B * 1/x * d2w/dx2 + C * w = 0

where , w = w(x,y), A & B & C are constants.

Is there any analytical solution for this PDE?

If not, is finite difference is the right numerical tools to solve it?

Thanks,

Frank

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- Thread starter FrankST
- Start date

- #1

- 24

- 0

I have a PDE like:

A * d2w/dy2 + B * 1/x * d2w/dx2 + C * w = 0

where , w = w(x,y), A & B & C are constants.

Is there any analytical solution for this PDE?

If not, is finite difference is the right numerical tools to solve it?

Thanks,

Frank

- #2

- 70

- 0

[tex]A\frac{\partial^2 w(x,y)}{\partial y^2}+\frac{B}{x}\frac{\partial^2 w(x,y)}{\partial y^2}+Cw(x,y) = 0[/tex]

can be solved by the Laplace transform. The general solution is as follows

[tex]w(x,y)=\int_{-\infty}^{-\infty} F_1 (\omega) AiryAi [-((A\omega^2+C)/B)^{1/3}x]+F_2 (\omega) AiryBi [-((A\omega^2+C)/B)^{1/3}x]\exp(y\omega)d\omega ,[/tex]

where [tex]F_1 (\omega) , F_2 (\omega) [/tex] are arbitrary functions.

- #3

- 70

- 0

[tex]w(x,y)=\int_{-\infty}^{-\infty} \{F_1 (\omega) AiryAi [-((A\omega^2+C)/B)^{1/3}x]+F_2 (\omega) AiryBi [-((A\omega^2+C)/B)^{1/3}x]\}\exp(y\omega)d\omega ,[/tex]

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