That is correct, as long as you remember that the implied direction is AWAY from Q4.
On vector form, we have:
\vec{F}_{41}=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_{0}}\frac{Q_{1}Q_{4}}{r_{41}^{2}}\frac{\vec{r}_{4}-\vec{r}_{1}}{r_{41}}
EXPLANATIONS:
1)Here, I have included the last fraction to have the basic direction explicitly included.
2)\vec{F}_{41} means: The force acting on Q4 from Q1
3) r_{41} is the DISTANCE between Q1 and Q4, that is, some positive number.
CALCULATIONS:
Q1=2.0 nC
Q4=5.0 nC
Hence, Q1*Q4=10.0(nC)^{2}
\vec{r}_{4}=\vec{0} (that is, situated at the origin)
\vec{r}_{1}= 0.05m\vec{i}
(that is, situated 0.05m to the right-hand side of Q4 at the origin)
Hence, \vec{r}_{4}-\vec{r}_{1}=-0.05m\vec{i}
That is, the direction indicated by this quantity is leftwards.
r_{41}=0.05m that is the DISTANCE between Q1 and Q4 is 0.05m
Collecting all together, we have:
\vec{F}_{41}=-\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_{0}}\frac{10.0(nC)^{2}}{(0.05m)^{2}}\vec{i}
That is, the force on Q4 from Q1 is directed leftwards.
Q4 tends to be REPELLED from Q1, because they have EQUAL TYPE OF CHARGE!
Was this okay?