Pig on a slide Friction Problem

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The discussion revolves around calculating the coefficient of kinetic friction between a pig and a slide, given that the pig takes twice as long to slide down a frictional slide compared to a frictionless one. Participants clarify the equations of motion and forces acting on the pig, emphasizing the need to differentiate between accelerations in both scenarios. The final expression for the coefficient of friction is derived as μ = (3/4)tan(θ), with the calculated value being approximately 0.53. Corrections to algebraic errors are noted, highlighting the importance of careful calculations. The problem-solving process illustrates the interplay between physics concepts and mathematical accuracy.
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A slide loving pig slides down a certin 35 degree slide in twice the time it would take to slide down a frictionless 35 degree slide. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the pig and the slide? Here is what I have so far...
[sum]Fx=ma=mgsin [the] -[mu]mgcos[the] I canceled out the mass on both sides and get
[sum]Fx=a=gsin [the] -[mu]gcos[the]

For the y forces I have
[sum]y=N=mgcos[the]

As far as the difference in the time with or without friction I have x=mgsin[the]=(1/2)at^2 for the slide with no friction and I have x=mgsin[the]=2at^2for the slide with friction
This is all the info I have been able to come up with...I can't figure out how to put it all together. Thanks for helping. I've been working on this one for awhile.
 
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Be careful about mixing up forces, accelerations and positions. For example, your second equation has forces equalling accelerations (not good). I'm assuming the 'x' direction is along the ramp and that the pig starts at the top of the ramp from rest (I'm told pigs like to rest). So let's call the distance down the ramp (same for friction/no friction) Δx. In either case,

\Delta x = \frac{at^2}{2}

which is where (it seemed like) you were heading.

The acceleration is different in each case and the time is different in each case. Let's call the time down the frictionless slide T, and the time down the slide with friction 2T. From your force balance, you found the acceleration with friction already, let's call it af:

a_f = g\sin \theta - \mu g\cos \theta

without friction (anf) is simply:

a_{nf} = g\sin\theta

To put it all together, equate Δxf with Δxnf:

\frac{a_f(2T)^2}{2} = \frac{a_{nf}T^2}{2}

substitute in your expressions for af and anf and solve for μ

4\left(g\sin \theta - \mu g\cos \theta\right) = g\sin\theta

\vdots

\mu = 3\tan\theta

(I suggest you verify my algebra for yourself in case I made a careless error or two.)


Edit:
(Last line corrected for algebra)

\mu = \frac{3\tan\theta}{4}
 
Last edited:
Thanks

Funny how it seems so obvious when someone explains it. Thanks for your help.
 
Algebra Corrections

It turns out to be (3/4)Tan[the] I got the final answer to be [mu]=.53 Ahhhh, now I can sleep at night[zz)]
 
Good job. Glad I put in that disclaimor; maybe I should just add it to my signature. I guess I was so wrapped up in using the new \LaTeX functionality that I forgot to distribute the 4.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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