Please check my proof (L'hôpital's rule)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the compounding interest formula, specifically starting from the expression A=A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}. Participants are exploring the application of limits and L'hôpital's rule in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the limit process as n approaches infinity and the use of L'hôpital's rule to evaluate the limit of a logarithmic expression. Questions arise regarding the treatment of the variable 'a' and the correctness of dropping it in the limit process.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on each other's reasoning and clarifying points of confusion. There is a recognition of the need for more detailed steps in the proof, and some participants express uncertainty about certain manipulations, while others affirm the validity of those steps.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of typographical errors and missing intermediate steps in the original proof attempt, which may affect clarity. Participants are also reflecting on their understanding of mathematical concepts and the process of documenting proofs.

QuarkCharmer
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I should have made the title say "using L'h..." rather than what it is, I apologize.

Homework Statement


Prove the compounding interest formula from the following:
A=A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



A=A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

lim_{n\to\infty}A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

A_{0}e^{t lim_{n\to\infty}n ln(a+\frac{r}{n})}

let u = lim_{n\to\infty}n ln(a+\frac{r}{n})

So now the desired function is A = A_{0}e^{tu}

u = lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{ln(1+\frac{r}{n})}{\frac{1}{n}}

Using L'hôpital's rule gives that:

u = lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\frac{d}{dn}ln(1+\frac{r}{n})}{\frac{d}{dn} \frac{1}{n}}

u = lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{rn^{2}}{n^{2}+rn}

u = lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\frac{rn^{2}}{n^{2}}}{\frac{n^{2}}{n^{2}}+\frac{rn}{n^{2}}}

u = lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{r}{1+\frac{r}{n}} = \frac{r}{1} = r

u = r

Now, re-substituting r back in for u yields:

A = A_{0}e^{rt}Which is the typical Pe^{rt} formula we all know and love?

I don't want to look it up and spoil it because I think I am right. Not sure if you can raise e to the ln of something, but I don't see why not. It's not like it changes anything and I figure you have to get an e in there somehow.
 
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Some remarks:

QuarkCharmer said:
u = lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{ln(1+\frac{r}{n})}{\frac{1}{n}}

Why did you drop the a?? You have exchanged a by 1. Eventually it won't matter, but I don't see how you can drop it just like that.

Using L'hôpital's rule gives that:

u = lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{\frac{d}{dn}ln(1+\frac{r}{n})}{\frac{d}{dn} \frac{1}{n}}

u = lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{rn^{2}}{n^{2}+rn}

This is correct, but I don't see where you get it from.

Not sure if you can raise e to the ln of something, but I don't see why not. It's not like it changes anything and I figure you have to get an e in there somehow.

Yes, you can do it, and it's one of the great tricks in working with limits. Did you discover that trick all by yourself?? Great!
 
QuarkCharmer said:
I should have made the title say "using L'h..." rather than what it is, I apologize.

Homework Statement


Prove the compounding interest formula from the following:
A=A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



A=A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

lim_{n\to\infty}A_{0}(a+\frac{r}{n})^{nt}

A_{0}e^{t lim_{n\to\infty}n ln(a+\frac{r}{n})}

let u = lim_{n\to\infty}n ln(a+\frac{r}{n})

So now the desired function is A = A_{0}e^{tu}

u = lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{ln(1+\frac{r}{n})}{\frac{1}{n}}
Why did you set a=1?
 
Oh wow, yeah that "a" should have been a "1" from the start. I typed out the formula I was starting with incorrectly and then copy/paste the errors further into the problem until I finally typed a line by hand and fixed it!

I'm a horrible latex-er?

This is correct, but I don't see where you get it from.
Truth be told, I didn't want to type out the intermediate steps where I took the derivative and simplified. I know that step to be correct and this is not a real "proof" that I am turning into anyone. I am just doing some extra problems from Stuart 6E 7.8 (This one is #85).

Aside from the missing intermediate steps, and the horrid typo (I swear it's correct on my handwritten paper), everything else is okay? More specifically, if I were to document all the steps in a proof based writing (which I have no idea how to do), it would make sense how I came to the conclusion?

Thanks for all the input.
 
QuarkCharmer said:
Aside from the missing intermediate steps, and the horrid typo (I swear it's correct on my handwritten paper), everything else is okay? More specifically, if I were to document all the steps in a proof based writing (which I have no idea how to do), it would make sense how I came to the conclusion?

Yes, everything is clear and correct!
 
micromass said:
Yes, you can do it, and it's one of the great tricks in working with limits. Did you discover that trick all by yourself?? Great!

I thought so but I doubt it. I think I remember a similar tactic used in a proof of something on khanacademy and I just stole the idea.

Thanks for the help!
 

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