MHB Please check this complex integral

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The discussion focuses on evaluating the integral \( \oint\frac{dz}{z(2z+1)} \) using the residue theorem. It identifies two simple poles at 0 and \(-\frac{1}{2}\), with calculated residues of 1 and -1, respectively, leading to a total integral value of 0. An alternative approach using partial fractions is suggested, though some participants question its simplicity, noting that it still requires finding two residues. The consensus is that since both poles are inside the contour, the integral evaluates to zero. The discussion emphasizes the effectiveness of the residue theorem in this context.
ognik
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An old exam has: Evaluate $ \oint\frac{dz}{z(2z+1)} $, where the contour is a unit circle

This look good for the residue theorem, it has 2 simple poles at 0, $-\frac{1}{2}$
$ Res(f, 0)= \lim_{{z}\to{0}}z\frac{1}{z(2z+1)}=1$
$ Res(f, -\frac{1}{2})= \lim_{{z}\to{-\frac{1}{2}}}(z+\frac{1}{2})\frac{1}{z2(z+\frac{1}{2})}=-1$
$ \oint\frac{dz}{z(2z+1)} =2\pi i\sum Res(f) = 2 \pi [1 + (-1)] = 0$
Is that right?
 
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Here is an easier suggestion. Use partial fractions first.
 
ognik said:
An old exam has: Evaluate $ \oint\frac{dz}{z(2z+1)} $, where the contour is a unit circle

This look good for the residue theorem, it has 2 simple poles at 0, $-\frac{1}{2}$
$ Res(f, 0)= \lim_{{z}\to{0}}z\frac{1}{z(2z+1)}=1$
$ Res(f, -\frac{1}{2})= \lim_{{z}\to{-\frac{1}{2}}}(z+\frac{1}{2})\frac{1}{z2(z+\frac{1}{2})}=-1$
$ \oint\frac{dz}{z(2z+1)} =2\pi i\sum Res(f) = 2 \pi [1 + (-1)] = 0$
Is that right?

Looks good to me :)
 
ThePerfectHacker said:
Here is an easier suggestion. Use partial fractions first.

Hi TPH, I don't see how partial fractions are easier $ \implies \oint \left[ \frac{1}{z}-\frac{1}{z+\frac{1}{2}} \right] dz $ - I would still end up finding 2 residues? What am I missing?
 
ognik said:
Hi TPH, I don't see how partial fractions are easier $ \implies \oint \left[ \frac{1}{z}-\frac{1}{z+\frac{1}{2}} \right] dz $ - I would still end up finding 2 residues? What am I missing?

Use the following fact,
$$ \oint_{\Gamma} \frac{dz}{z-a} = \left\{ \begin{array}{ccc} 2\pi i & \text{ if } & a \text{ is inside the contour } \\
0 & \text{ if } & a \text{ is not inside } \end{array} \right. $$

You do not need to calculate anything. Only see if $a$ is inside or outside your contour.
 
Nice. So both are inside, therefore we get $2 \pi i - 2 \pi i$ = 0?
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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