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I have been reading a book about optimization and I found the following trigonometric equation:

tan(10x.pi)= - 10 pi x (this equation goes from x E [-1,2]

it is easy to see that has infinite solutions, but the author came to the conclusion that the solutions are:

xi=(2i-1)/20+Ei, for i=1,2,...

x0=0

xi=(2i+1)/20+Ei, for i=-1,-2,...

HOw does he get those probable solutions, please I really need to know... :yuck:

Thank you so much

JoanManuel