transgalactic
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prove this inequality for x>0
[tex] x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^5}{120}>\sin x[/tex]
this is a tailor series for sin x
[tex] sinx=x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^5}{120}+R_5[/tex]
for this innequality to be correct the remainder must be negative
but i can't prove it because there are values for c when the -sin c expression will be possitive
[tex] R_5=\frac{-sin(c)}{6!}x^6[/tex]
??
i got another approach
[tex] f(x)=x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^5}{120}-sin[/tex]
[tex] f'(x)=1-\frac{x^2}{2}x+\frac{x^4}{24}-\cos x[/tex]
[tex] f''(x)=-x+\frac{x^3}{6}+\sin x[/tex]
[tex] f^{(3)}(x)=-1+\frac{x^2}{2}+\cos x[/tex]
[tex] f^{(4)}(x)=x-\sin x[/tex]
in this point how to know that the 4th derivative is always positive for x>0
??
[tex] x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^5}{120}>\sin x[/tex]
this is a tailor series for sin x
[tex] sinx=x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^5}{120}+R_5[/tex]
for this innequality to be correct the remainder must be negative
but i can't prove it because there are values for c when the -sin c expression will be possitive
[tex] R_5=\frac{-sin(c)}{6!}x^6[/tex]
??
i got another approach
[tex] f(x)=x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^5}{120}-sin[/tex]
[tex] f'(x)=1-\frac{x^2}{2}x+\frac{x^4}{24}-\cos x[/tex]
[tex] f''(x)=-x+\frac{x^3}{6}+\sin x[/tex]
[tex] f^{(3)}(x)=-1+\frac{x^2}{2}+\cos x[/tex]
[tex] f^{(4)}(x)=x-\sin x[/tex]
in this point how to know that the 4th derivative is always positive for x>0
??