Undergrad How Are Definite Integrals Related to the Principle of Least Action?

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The discussion focuses on the relationship between definite integrals and the principle of least action, specifically in the context of Goldstein's derivation. A question is raised about the mathematical theorem related to definite integrals and the expression involving variations at the endpoints. It is clarified that the approximation of the integral over a small interval relies on evaluating the function at a point within that interval, which is justified by the smallness of the deltas. The use of Taylor expansion is suggested as a method to understand the reasoning behind the evaluation of the function at the endpoints. Overall, the conversation emphasizes the nuances of applying definite integrals in the context of action principles.
Ben Geoffrey
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This is with regard to my doubt in the derivation of the principle of least of action in Goldstein

Is there any theorem in math about definite integrals like this ∫a+cb+df(x)dx = f(a)c-f(b)d

The relevant portion of the derivation is given in the image.
 

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That only works when the variations in the endpoints are small. The integral over a small interval is approx. the function value at a point in the interval times the width of the interval.
 
But why is the variation due to ends points L(t2)Δt2 - L(t1)Δt1 rather than L(t2 +Δt2) - L(t1 +Δt1) . Makes more sense if it is L(t2 +Δt2) - L(t1 +Δt1)
 
Ben Geoffrey said:
But why is the variation due to ends points L(t2)Δt2 - L(t1)Δt1 rather than L(t2 +Δt2) - L(t1 +Δt1) . Makes more sense if it is L(t2 +Δt2) - L(t1 +Δt1)

If the deltas are small it makes no difference where you evaluate the function within the small interval.

To see this use a Taylor expansion.
 
thank you
 
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