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The discussion focuses on calculating the induced EMF in a shrinking circular loop of iron wire within a uniform magnetic field. The loop's circumference decreases at a rate of 13.0 cm/s, and the magnetic field strength is 0.600 T. The participant has derived the change in flux over time and consistently arrived at an EMF value of 0.0187. They also noted the importance of correctly accounting for the area decrease, as it occurs more rapidly than the circumference reduction. The final equation proposed for EMF is ε = B * (dA/dt), with further mathematical manipulation needed for accuracy.
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Induced EMF and Current in a Shrinking Loop

Homework Statement



Shrinking Loop. A circular loop of flexible iron wire has an initial circumference of 170 cm, but its circumference is decreasing at a constant rate of 13.0 cm/s due to a tangential pull on the wire. The loop is in a constant uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.600 T, which is oriented perpendicular to the plane of the loop.

Find the (magnitude of the) emf EMF induced in the loop after exactly time 3.00 s has passed since the circumference of the loop started to decrease.

Homework Equations


C(t)= C_0 - a t .
r(t) = \frac{C(t)}{2 \pi}
\Phi(t) = \frac{B[C(t)]^2}{4 \pi}.


The Attempt at a Solution



I've done a couple things and gotten the same answer of .0187

I found the change in flux / time by multiplying the B field times the change in area/ change in time. Also tried taking the difference in flux through the given equation for phi divided by the time, but got the same result of .0187.
 
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C(t)= C_0 - a t
OK, this is good.
r(t) = \frac{C(t)}{2 \pi}
This is also correct.
\Phi(t) = \frac{B[C(t)]^2}{4 \pi}
Be careful. You can't just divide by time, because the area is decreasing more rapidly than the circumference (you'll kick yourself once you realize this mistake, it's that simple).

You know that (in terms of magnitudes) \epsilon = B \frac{dA}{dt}. You know A(t). The rest is just mathematics.
 
for \epsilon = B \frac{dA}{dt} I came up with the equation \epsilon = B \frac{a(at-C_0)}{2\pi}{. Is that correct?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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