Probabilities Inside Cubic 3D Infinite Well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of finding an electron in a specific region of a cubic 3D infinite well, given its normalized wave function and quantum states.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the necessity of integration to find the probability and question how to handle the variable lengths in the cubic well. There is also consideration of symmetry in the wavefunction and how it might simplify the problem.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance on focusing on the integration for the y-dimension and noted that the conditions for x and z are inherently satisfied. There is an ongoing exploration of how to set up the problem correctly, particularly regarding integration limits.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the specific values of L and how they relate to the integration process. There is a mention of potential confusion stemming from examples in textbooks that may skip over certain calculations.

erok81
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Homework Statement



An electron is trapped in a cubic 3D infinite well. In the states (nx,ny,nz) = (a)(2,1,1), (b)(1,2,1) (c)(1,1,2), what is the probability of finding the electron in the region (0 ≤ x ≤ L, 1/3L ≤ y ≤ 2/3L, 0 ≤ z ≤ L)?

Homework Equations



My normalized wave function in the box is:

[tex]\psi _{(x,y,z)} = \left( \frac{2}{L}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}sin\left(\frac{n_{x} \pi x}{L_{x}}\right)sin\left(\frac{n_{y} \pi y}{L_{y}}\right)sin\left(\frac{n_{z} \pi z}{L_{z}}\right)[/tex]

And my probability is found by |ψ2|

The Attempt at a Solution



Without integrating I am not sure how to proceed on this problem. If I had exact values for L, obviously it would be fairly straight forward.

My problem is I don't know what to put in for the normalized L (since it isn't axis specific) and my axis specific L's give ranges.
 
Last edited:
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Since this well is cubic, isn't Lx=Ly=Lz?

The first and last conditions are always going to be satisfied, so all you have to worry about is 1/3L ≤ y ≤ 2/3L. You find that by integrating the one-dimensional solution from 1/3L to 2/3L. It shouldn't be a hard integral, especially if you use Wolfram Alpha. For part b, you shouldn't need to integrate; think about the symmetry of the wavefunction and you'll get the answer.
 
Ugh...how soon we forget.

I don't have the probability right. You nailed it. I was looking at an example in the book and they skipped over the probability calculation so I wrong assumed there wasn't any integration. No wonder it didn't make sense.

What do you mean by "The first and last conditions are always going to be satisfied..."

And say I had the same problem my ranges were all like the center one where it isn't just 0 to L. Would I set up a triple integral over the different variable ranges?
 
erok81 said:
What do you mean by "The first and last conditions are always going to be satisfied..."

I mean that 0 ≤ x ≤ L and 0 ≤ z ≤ L are always true, so you don't need to worry about them.

And say I had the same problem my ranges were all like the center one where it isn't just 0 to L. Would I set up a triple integral over the different variable ranges?

Yes.
 

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