Probabilities with Chips and Bowls

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The discussion focuses on calculating the conditional probability of transferring 2 red and 3 blue chips from bowl 1 to bowl 2, given that a blue chip is drawn from bowl 2. The formula used involves the probabilities of different combinations of chips being transferred and their likelihood of drawing a blue chip. A participant suggests a quicker method by calculating the probability of drawing at least one blue chip directly from bowl 1, but finds discrepancies in the results. Ultimately, it is concluded that the probability of drawing a blue chip from bowl 2 remains at 0.4, emphasizing that the transfer process does not alter the fundamental probability. The complexity increases if multiple chips are drawn from bowl 2.
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A better way to do Probabilities with Chips and Bowls?

Question:
bowl 1 contains 6 red chips and 4 blue chips. 5 chips are selected at random and placed in bowl 2. then 1 chips is drawn from bowl 2. Relative to the hypothesis that this chip is blue, find the conditional probability that 2 red chips and 3 blue chips are transferred from bowl 1 to 2.

Solution:
in lamens terms, the question is asking "what is the probability of 2red and 3 blue chips, given 1 blue" or P(2r3b | 1b)

p(2r3b | 1b) = ( P(2r3b) * P(1b | 2r3b) ) / ( P(2r3b) * P(1b | 2r3b) + P(4r1b) * P(1b | 4r1b) + P(3r2b) * P(1b | 3r2b) + P(1r4b) * P(1b | 1r4b))

Ok great. so i calculate all that, i get 5/14... but these questions take FOREVER! my question: is there a quicker way to do this? I thought about the following:
The denominator in the above equation should all add up to P(of picking any 5 random chips with at least 1 blue), let's say P(A). So does it not make sense to say P(A) = 1 - P(no blue chips) = 1 - P(5red).

P(5red) = 1/42
so P(A) = 41/42 which is not equal to the denominator from above (which btw is 6/15).

Any insight?
 
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To compute the probability that the chip drawn from the second bowl is blue, compute it as if you drew it from the first bowl. The intermediate step of transferring chips to a second bowl shouldn't affect the bottom line probability of getting a blue chip on one draw.
 
so you are implying that the probability is .4?
 
The probability that the chip drawn from the bowl 2 is blue = 0.4.

The calculation wouldn't be so simple if you had to draw more than 1 chip from bowl 2.
 
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