Probability of getting a streak

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves calculating the probability of obtaining a streak of 5 heads in a row when a coin is tossed 200 times. It falls within the subject area of probability theory, specifically focusing on sequences of independent Bernoulli trials.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods to approach the problem, including the use of simulations and theoretical frameworks such as Markov chains. There are attempts to categorize the outcomes of the coin tosses and calculate probabilities based on different states of the tosses.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations and methods to calculate the probability. Some have provided links to external resources for further reading, while others are seeking clarification on the reasoning behind certain calculations and assumptions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original poster is new to the topic of binomial distributions, which may influence their understanding of the problem. There is also mention of the complexity of the problem, indicating that it may be beyond the current curriculum level.

Biosyn
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Homework Statement



If a coin is tossed 200 times, what is the probability of getting 5 heads in a row?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution




I know that the probability of getting 5 heads in a row for the first 4 flips is 0. I don't know what to do with that information.

1 - [(0.5)^5 * (0.5)^195] ?

I used this streak simulator:
http://www.pulcinientertainment.com/info/Streak-Calculator-enter.html#ev-runs

And the probability is 0.965903381259682.
 
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Are you familiar with Markov chains?
 
No, I am not. :frown:

We are starting binomial distributions in our stats class this week.
 
Then this rather an advanced problem. See e.g. http://math.stackexchange.com/quest...ngth-of-the-longest-run-in-n-bernoulli-trials, http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Run.html.
You can get a crude lower bound by chopping the 200 into 22 blocks of 9 (and 2 left over). (9, because 9 = 5*2-1, so there cannot be two separate runs of 5 in the same block.) This allows us to break it into 5 disjoint cases:
- HHHHHxxxx
- THHHHHxxx
- xTHHHHHxx
- xxTHHHHHx
- xxxTHHHHH
for a tot prob of 3/32.
The prob that none of the 22 blocks have such a run is therefore (1-3/32)22 ≈ 0.11. But 0.89 is some way short of the 0.96 you found.
 
haruspex said:
Then this rather an advanced problem. See e.g. http://math.stackexchange.com/quest...ngth-of-the-longest-run-in-n-bernoulli-trials, http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Run.html.
You can get a crude lower bound by chopping the 200 into 22 blocks of 9 (and 2 left over). (9, because 9 = 5*2-1, so there cannot be two separate runs of 5 in the same block.) This allows us to break it into 5 disjoint cases:
- HHHHHxxxx
- THHHHHxxx
- xTHHHHHxx
- xxTHHHHHx
- xxxTHHHHH
for a tot prob of 3/32.
The prob that none of the 22 blocks have such a run is therefore (1-3/32)22 ≈ 0.11. But 0.89 is some way short of the 0.96 you found.

Oh you posted this before I was going to edit my first post.
I asked this question earlier today and someone answered it. Would you mind explaining his solution to me?
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/i...BRxA.2Lty6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20121217171124AAPB2E5

Okay - this is actually a REALLY complex probability problem. It involves state-based probabilities. Here's a whole math paper dedicated to the topic:

http://www.askamathematician.com/2010/07…

First of all, the probability of having 5 heads in a row after 1, 2, 3, or 4 flips is 0. Moving forward, you need to look at the probability of being in a certain "state", based on how many heads have been flipped so far. Then you can calculate the probability. In "Steady State", the probability of a preceding run of 0 heads is:

P(0) = 1/2
P(1) = 1/4
P(2) = 1/8
P(3) = 1/16
P(4) = 1/32
...

So - from flip 5 through flip 200 is a total of 196 flips. And the probability of NOT getting 5 heads in a row will be approximately (1 - (1/32) (1/2))^196 = 4.56%
What is (1/32)(1/2).
Is this the probability of getting 5 heads for the first 5 flips multiplied by the probability of getting a head the next flip?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Biosyn said:
Oh you posted this before I was going to edit my first post.
I asked this question earlier today and someone answered it. Would you mind explaining his solution to me?
It considers the last 5 toss outcomes at any point. If you've not had a run of 5Hs yet, the mutually exclusive possibilities can be categorised as:
xxxxT
xxxTH
xxTHH
xTHHH
THHHH
the probs being 1/2, 1/4, 1/8..., 1/32. It treats this as a 'steady state', i.e., so long as you've still not had a run of 5Hs this always represents the current state. (It's clearly not quite right because it does not add up to 1.)
The prob of completing a run of 5Hs at the next toss is therefore 1/64. If we do not complete such a run, either because we toss a T or were not yet in the '4H' state, the assumption is that we remain in the 'steady state' distribution. So the prob of getting no run is (1-1/64)196 ≈ 4.6%
 
haruspex said:
It considers the last 5 toss outcomes at any point. If you've not had a run of 5Hs yet, the mutually exclusive possibilities can be categorised as:
xxxxT
xxxTH
xxTHH
xTHHH
THHHH
the probs being 1/2, 1/4, 1/8..., 1/32. It treats this as a 'steady state', i.e., so long as you've still not had a run of 5Hs this always represents the current state. (It's clearly not quite right because it does not add up to 1.)
The prob of completing a run of 5Hs at the next toss is therefore 1/64. If we do not complete such a run, either because we toss a T or were not yet in the '4H' state, the assumption is that we remain in the 'steady state' distribution. So the prob of getting no run is (1-1/64)196 ≈ 4.6%
Ah I see. Thank you.

[STRIKE]
So let me summarize what I get out of this. And then would you correct me?

If we have not completed a run of 5H, then it can be assumed that we remain in 'steady state' distribution meaning it can be either of those mutually exclusive categories (P(0)-P(4)).

And 1/64 is the probability of completing a run. So to find out the probability of not completing a run, we subtract 1/64 from 1. And take it to the power of 196 because we subtract the first 4 flips which have a probability of 0 of flipping 5 heads consecutively.
[/STRIKE]I'm confused here:

xxxxT_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/2
xxxTH_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/4
xxTHH_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/8
xTHHH_ The probabilit of getting head next: 1/16
THHHH_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/32

And the probability of getting a run of 5H is 1/64.

But isn't the probability of getting 5 heads .5^5? Or is it because you flipped a Tails first.
 
Last edited:
Biosyn said:
I'm confused here:

xxxxT_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/2
xxxTH_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/4
xxTHH_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/8
xTHHH_ The probabilit of getting head next: 1/16
THHHH_ The probability of getting a head next: 1/32
No, those are the probabilities of being in those states. In each case, the prob of a head next is 1/2.
 

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