So going from the last to the first..
I guess there was a mistake in the b. part which asks for rms uncertainty, a typing error in the question?
It should be asking for √[itex]\langle[/itex](r-[itex]\langle[/itex]r[itex]\rangle[/itex])2[itex]\rangle[/itex] which actually clears that part. If that is the case, then the variance [itex]\langle[/itex](r-[itex]\langle[/itex]r[itex]\rangle[/itex])2[itex]\rangle[/itex] can be found through computing [itex]\langle[/itex]r2[itex]\rangle[/itex] -[itex]\langle[/itex]r[itex]\rangle[/itex]2 and this through substituting ∫rψψ*dV from ∫r2ψψ*dV where ψ* is the complex conjugate of ψ and the limits of the integral are from 0 to infinity. Do correct me if i am mistaken.
About a. ii)
It should be simply computing the integral ∫ψψ*dV from 0 to infinity, right?
What I'm confused about is what a. i) is asking for. What is the physical meaning of a volume P([itex]\vec{r}[/itex])d3[itex]\vec{r}[/itex] around [itex]\vec{r}[/itex]? This sound completely meaningless to me. An infinitesimal volume around [itex]\vec{r}[/itex]?
I could try something like ∫∫∫ψψ*drdrdr with all the limits from r to r+dr but this seems senseless because what is natural for a system like this is to use spherical coordinates or taking dV= 4∏r2dr to calculate an integral such as the ones above. Or since dr is infinitesimal I could just multiply P(r) with d3r, I feel there is something wrong with this but what is it?