vesu
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sovela said:Actually, it isn't, which is Whovian's point. Since we're trying to prove that there are no zero divisors, so we can't assume that just because eiθ≠0, then zeiθ=0 implies z=0 because eiθ might be a zero divisor. You should show how to get rid of the complex exponential, e.g. take the modulus or multiply by e-iθ.
Now I agree that the OP was likely using circular reasoning while the rest of us glossed over it, thinking "Obviously you can get rid of the exponential." It was a good catch by Whovian.
[itex]zw = 0[/itex]
[itex]re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0[/itex]
[itex]rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0[/itex]
[itex]e^{i(\theta + \phi)} \not= 0[/itex]
[itex]\frac{rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}} = \frac{0}{e^{i(\theta + \phi)}}[/itex]
[itex]rq = 0[/itex]
[itex]\therefore r=0[/itex] or [itex]q=0[/itex]
[itex]\therefore z = 0[/itex] or [itex]w = 0[/itex]
Um, I can't find anything at all in our course material about taking the modulus of a complex exponential. According to WolframAlpha [itex]|e^{i\theta}| = 1[/itex] assuming [itex]\theta[/itex] is real? So, uh...
[itex]zw = 0[/itex]
[itex]re^{i\theta} \times qe^{i\phi} = 0[/itex]
[itex]rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)} = 0[/itex]
[itex]|rqe^{i(\theta + \phi)}| = |0|[/itex]
[itex]rq = 0[/itex]
[itex]\therefore r=0[/itex] or [itex]q=0[/itex]
[itex]\therefore z = 0[/itex] or [itex]w = 0[/itex]
Both of these seem okay I think?