Proof f(x)>g(x) in an interval

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that if functions f(x) and g(x) are continuous on the interval [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b), with f(a) ≥ g(a) and f'(x) > g'(x) for a < x < b, then f(x) > g(x) for a < x ≤ b. Participants explore the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) and the implications of the derivative conditions, ultimately concluding that k(x) = f(x) - g(x) is continuous and differentiable, leading to k'(x) > 0, which implies k(x) > 0 throughout the interval.

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  • Understanding of continuity and differentiability of functions
  • Familiarity with the Mean Value Theorem (MVT)
  • Knowledge of derivatives and their implications
  • Basic concepts of real analysis
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  • Investigate the properties of continuous and differentiable functions
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Students of real analysis, mathematicians focusing on calculus, and anyone interested in understanding the behavior of continuous and differentiable functions within specified intervals.

  • #31
Dank2 said:

Homework Statement


let fx, gx be continuous in [a,b] and differentiable in (a,b). at the end of the interval f(a) >= g(a).

and f'(x) >g'(x) for a<x<b.

proof f(x) > g(x) for a<x<=b
I that supposed to be
let f(x), g(x) be continuous in [a,b] ...​
?
Attempt:
There is a statement says that if the f'x = g'x for x in [a,b] , then there exists k such that f'x - g'x = k for any x in [a,b]

but f'(x) = g'(x) + t(x), where t(x) isn't have to be a line. and i cannot use the statement
Did you mean that literally?
There is a statement says that if the f'x = g'x for x in [a,b] , then there exists k such that f'x - g'x = k ...​
or perhaps:
f'(x) = g'(x) for x in [a,b] , then there exists k such that f'(x) - g'(x) = k ...​
.
PeroK said:
You need to put a bit more effort in here! You're doing real analysis, which requires precision in terms of the statement of a problem. I'll help you on this point, but you need to start thinking more (pure) mathematically:

We have that ##k## is continuous on ##[a, b]##, differentiable on ##(a, b)##, ##k(a) \ge 0## and ##\forall x \in (a, b), \ k'(x) > 0##.

We must show that ##\forall x \in (a, b], \ k(x) > 0##
Thank you @PeroK !
 

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