Proof of the Equipartition Theorem

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter dRic2
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Proof Theorem
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof of the Equipartition Theorem (ET) as presented in undergraduate statistical physics texts, specifically referencing Reif's "Statistical and Thermal Physics." The Hamiltonian is expressed as $$H = bp_i^2 + E'(q_1,...,p_f)$$, where ##b## can depend on other coordinates and momenta but not on the i-th term. A key point of contention is whether the integral $$$$ can factorize when ##b## is a function of generalized coordinates and momenta. The resolution lies in recognizing that if ##b## does not depend on ##p_i##, the integral can indeed be simplified, leading to the conclusion that $$ = \frac{1}{2} k_B T$$.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Hamiltonian mechanics
  • Familiarity with statistical mechanics concepts
  • Knowledge of Gaussian integrals
  • Experience with partition functions in thermodynamics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Hamiltonian mechanics and its applications in statistical physics
  • Learn about Gaussian integrals and their properties
  • Research the derivation of the Equipartition Theorem in detail
  • Explore partition functions and their role in thermodynamic calculations
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for undergraduate physics students, researchers in statistical mechanics, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of the Equipartition Theorem.

dRic2
Gold Member
Messages
887
Reaction score
225
The proof for the ET I've found in some of the undergrad books for statistical physics (for example in Reif's "Statistical and Thermal Physics") assumes the form of the Hamiltonian of the system to be:
$$H = bp_i^2 + E'(q_1,...,p_f)$$
where ##b## is a constant.
My professor in his notes, says that ##b## can be a function of all the coordinates and momenta as long as it does not depend on the i-th term, i.e., ##b = b(q_j, p_{j \neq i})##. I fail to understand the proof however. Since now ##b## is a function of the generalized coordinates and momenta the integral
$$<bp_i^2> = \int d^{3f}q d^{3f}p bp_i^2 e^{-\beta H}$$
no longer factorizes.
In his notes he just says that recalling that the integral in ##p_i## is the second moment of a Gaussian we immediately obtain ##<bp_i^2> = \frac 1 2 k_B T##. But I am unable to perform the calculations.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

thanks
Ric
 
Science news on Phys.org
But the integral factorizes. If ##b## doesn't depend on ##p_i## you have
$$\langle b p_i^2 \rangle=\frac{1}{Z} \int \mathrm{d}^{3f}q \mathrm{d}^{3f-3} p b \exp(-\beta H') \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d}^3 p_i p_i^2 \exp[-\beta b p_i^2] ,$$
where the last integral leaves out the ##p_i## integration, which is done explicitly and ##H'## just omits the term ##b p_i^2##. Also don't forget the normalization factor, i.e., the partition sum which cancels all the stuff you omit to get the equipartition theorem in the given form.
 
vanhees71 said:
don't forget the normalization factor
Sorry, my fault.

vanhees71 said:
But the integral factorizes ...
...
...
the partition sum which cancels all the stuff you omit to get the equipartition theorem in the given form.
Still I don't get it. ##b## depends on all the other coordinates, so how can you simplify the remaining therms?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K