Proof of the linearity principle for a 2nd order PDE?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the linearity principle for second-order homogeneous partial differential equations (PDEs). The original poster references a textbook that states if u1 and u2 are solutions to such an equation, then a linear combination of these solutions, u = c1u1 + c2u2, is also a solution. The poster is tasked with proving this theorem and is exploring similarities to the corresponding theorem for ordinary differential equations (ODEs).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the approach of substituting a linear combination of solutions into the PDE and question the validity of assuming this combination is a solution without proof. There is a focus on understanding the implications of the linearity principle and the conditions under which it holds.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants raising questions about the assumptions made in the proof and the necessity of demonstrating that the linear combination satisfies the PDE. Some participants suggest that the original poster should utilize the fact that u1 and u2 are solutions to the PDE to advance the proof.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention that the result may not hold unless the PDE is linear, indicating a potential constraint on the applicability of the linearity principle being discussed.

jack476
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Homework Statement


My textbook (Advanced Engineering Mathematics, seventh edition, Kreyszig) indicates that if u1 and u2 are solutions to a second-order homogeneous partial differential equation, and c1 and c2 are constants, then u where

u = c1u1 + c2u2

is also a solution, this is the linearity principle (which it also calls the "Fundamental Theorem", not sure why though). I am asked to prove this theorem for second-order homogeneous partial differential equations of one and two variables. I am given as a hint that the proof is very similar to the same theorem for a second order homogeneous ordinary differential equation.

Homework Equations


First, the proof for the linearity principle for a 2nd-order homogeneous ODE of the form y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = 0. Substitute y = (c1y1 + c2y2). This results ultimately in:

y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = c1(y''1 + py'1 + qy1) + c2(y''2 + py'2 + qy2) = 0

I looked up also that the general form of a second-order homogeneous PDE is

Auxx +Buxy + Cuyy + Dux + Euy + Fu + G = 0 where A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are functions of x and y.

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried the same approach with substitution. I let α and β be constants and u = αu1 + βu2

Then

Auxx +Buxy + Cuyy + Dux + Euy + Fu + G = 0

Becomes

A(αu1 + βu2)xx +B(αu1 + βu2)xy + C(αu1 + βu2)yy + D(αu1 + βu2)x + E(αu1 + βu2)y + F(αu1 + βu2) + G = 0

Finally resulting in

α(Au1xx +Bu1xy + Cu1yy + Du1x + Eu1y + Fu1 + G) + β(Au2xx +Bu2xy + Cu2yy + Du2x + Eu2y + Fu2 + G) = 0

It is from here that I do not know how to continue. How do I prove from this, as in the case for homogeneous ODE's, that a linear combination of solutions is also a solution? Thank you in advance, and I seriously hope I didn't somehow wreck the formatting :)
 
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jack476 said:
First, the proof for the linearity principle for a 2nd-order homogeneous ODE of the form y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = 0. Substitute y = (c1y1 + c2y2). This results ultimately in:

You misunderstand the proof. You can't say "substitute (c1y1 + c2y2)", if you mean substitute this expression in place of y in the equation and keep the "=0". If you keep the "=0" you are assuming from the outset that the function (c1y1 + c2y2) is a solution to the equation. What you must do is prove that the expression is a solution.

This results ultimately in:
y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = c1(y''1 + py'1 + qy1) + c2(y''2 + py'2 + qy2) = 0

You don't get the "=0" just by substitution. Why does the expression on the left hand side "=0" ?
 
jack476 said:

Homework Statement


My textbook (Advanced Engineering Mathematics, seventh edition, Kreyszig) indicates that if u1 and u2 are solutions to a second-order homogeneous partial differential equation, and c1 and c2 are constants, then u where

u = c1u1 + c2u2

is also a solution, this is the linearity principle (which it also calls the "Fundamental Theorem", not sure why though). I am asked to prove this theorem for second-order homogeneous partial differential equations of one and two variables. I am given as a hint that the proof is very similar to the same theorem for a second order homogeneous ordinary differential equation.

Homework Equations


First, the proof for the linearity principle for a 2nd-order homogeneous ODE of the form y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = 0. Substitute y = (c1y1 + c2y2). This results ultimately in:

y'' + p(x)y' + q(x)y = c1(y''1 + py'1 + qy1) + c2(y''2 + py'2 + qy2) = 0

I looked up also that the general form of a second-order homogeneous PDE is

Auxx +Buxy + Cuyy + Dux + Euy + Fu + G = 0 where A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are functions of x and y.

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried the same approach with substitution. I let α and β be constants and u = αu1 + βu2

Then

Auxx +Buxy + Cuyy + Dux + Euy + Fu + G = 0

Becomes

A(αu1 + βu2)xx +B(αu1 + βu2)xy + C(αu1 + βu2)yy + D(αu1 + βu2)x + E(αu1 + βu2)y + F(αu1 + βu2) + G = 0

Finally resulting in

α(Au1xx +Bu1xy + Cu1yy + Du1x + Eu1y + Fu1 + G) + β(Au2xx +Bu2xy + Cu2yy + Du2x + Eu2y + Fu2 + G) = 0

It is from here that I do not know how to continue. How do I prove from this, as in the case for homogeneous ODE's, that a linear combination of solutions is also a solution? Thank you in advance, and I seriously hope I didn't somehow wreck the formatting :)

Don't you now need to use the fact that u1 and u2, by definition, are solutions to the original PDE?

In other words, if u1(x,y) = z(x,y), then

Azxx +Bzxy + Czyy + Dzx + Ezy + Fz + G = 0

and the same if u2(x,y) = z(x,y).
 
Stephen Tashi said:


You misunderstand the proof. You can't say "substitute (c1y1 + c2y2)", if you mean substitute this expression in place of y in the equation and keep the "=0". If you keep the "=0" you are assuming from the outset that the function (c1y1 + c2y2) is a solution to the equation. What you must do is prove that the expression is a solution.


I thought that was weird too, but it was just what came out of the book.
You don't get the "=0" just by substitution. Why does the expression on the left hand side "=0" ?

Because it's homogeneous, right?

SteamKing said:
Don't you now need to use the fact that u1 and u2, by definition, are solutions to the original PDE?

In other words, if u1(x,y) = z(x,y), then

Azxx +Bzxy + Czyy + Dzx + Ezy + Fz + G = 0

and the same if u2(x,y) = z(x,y).

Okay, I'll try that. Thanks:)
 
jack476 said:

Homework Statement


My textbook (Advanced Engineering Mathematics, seventh edition, Kreyszig) indicates that if u1 and u2 are solutions to a second-order homogeneous partial differential equation, and c1 and c2 are constants, then u where

u = c1u1 + c2u2

is also a solution, this is the linearity principle (which it also calls the "Fundamental Theorem", not sure why though).

Of course, this result is false unless the PDE is linear.
 
jack476 said:

Because it's homogeneous, right?

"It's"?

No, nothing about being homogeneous explains why the left hand side of the equation is zero. I think you didn't read the words that go along with the equations.
 

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