Proof of the value of an infinite sum

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the infinite series \(\Sigma \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{12}\) using the known result \(\Sigma \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}\). The user rewrites the series into two components: \(\Sigma \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}\) and \(\Sigma \frac{1}{(2n)^2}\), where the latter is established as \(\frac{\pi^2}{24}\). The challenge lies in determining \(\Sigma \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}\), which the user approximates using the integral test but recognizes that this does not constitute a formal proof.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of infinite series and convergence
  • Familiarity with the properties of \(\pi\) in mathematical series
  • Knowledge of the integral test for convergence
  • Basic proficiency in LaTeX for mathematical notation
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the derivation of \(\Sigma \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}\) using Fourier series
  • Study the relationship between alternating series and their convergence properties
  • Explore advanced techniques in series manipulation and transformation
  • Learn about the Euler-Maclaurin formula for approximating sums
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Mathematics students, educators, and researchers interested in series convergence, particularly those studying advanced calculus or mathematical analysis.

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Homework Statement


On an exam we were given that the [tex]\Sigma[/tex] 1/n^2 was (pi^2)/6. We were asked to prove that the value of [tex]\Sigma[/tex] ((-1)^(n+1))/(n^2)) = (pi^2)/12.

I'm sorry about the lack of latex; this is the first time I've ever *tried* to use it.

Homework Equations


Basic properties of series.
[tex]\Sigma[/tex] 1/n^2 = (pi^2)/6

3. The Attempt at a Solution
I rewrote the series as:
[tex]\Sigma[/tex] 1/(2n+1)^2 - [tex]\Sigma[/tex]1/(2n)^2
From the given information I know that [tex]\Sigma[/tex] 1/(2n)^2 = (pi^2)/24.
The problem is that fact that I don't know how to find [tex]\Sigma[/tex] 1/(2n+1)^2.
I used the integral test to approximate it, and I got 5/4, which is extremely close to the value it should be, which is (pi^2)/8, but I don't think this counts as "proving" it.

Can anyone think of an alternative way to go about proving it, or finding the exact value of [tex]\Sigma[/tex] 1/(2n+1)^2?

 
Last edited:
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The sum of 1/(2n)^2 + the sum of 1/(2n+1)^2 = the sum of 1/n^2. Isn't it?
 
...I can't believe I overlooked that. It was sitting in front of me the whole time :(.

Thanks a ton.
 

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