Proof: open sphere is an open set

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An open sphere in \mathbb{R}^m is defined as a set of points within a certain radius from a center point, denoted as B(P_0, r). To prove it is an open set, one must show that every point P inside the sphere is an interior point, meaning there exists an epsilon neighborhood around P that is entirely contained within the sphere. The triangle inequality is utilized to establish that the distance from any point S in the neighborhood to the center P_0 remains less than the radius r. The discussion highlights the importance of terminology, suggesting that "open ball" is the correct term for the interior set, while "sphere" refers to the boundary. The argument is deemed fundamentally correct but needs clearer organization for better flow.
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Homework Statement


Prove that an open sphere in \mathbb{R}^m is an open set.

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The Attempt at a Solution

To show that an open sphere is an open set, any point inside the sphere has to be an interior point:
Let us have a sphere B(P_0, r), r > 0, where P_0 is the centerpoint and r is the radius of the sphere and also an arbitrary point P inside the sphere. Hence \exists\varepsilon>0\colon B(P,\varepsilon)\subset B(P_0, r) and as we assumed the B(P_0, r) to be open, then it does not contain its boundary.

The idea is to use the triangle inequality by taking another random point in a sphere around the already random point P in the large sphere: S\in B(P, \varepsilon). The distance between two points d(A,B) (Pythagorean)
d(S, P_0)\leq d(S,P) + d(P,P_0) <\varepsilon + d(P,P_0). This is a shaky part - how can I justify this inequality is always correct? I can visualize it in my head, but is it accurate?

Per that assumption I would fix \varepsilon\colon = r - d(P,P_0) > 0 since P is an interior point and its distance cannot be greater than or equal to the radius of the large sphere, therefore \varepsilon is always strictly positive and \forall S\in B(P, \varepsilon_1) I can state that the distance d(S,P_0) < \varepsilon + d(P,P_0) = r which would mean that the open sphere is an open set as all its points are interior points.
 
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The argument is essentially correct, but things are a bit mixed up and it doesn't flow. I suggest trying to tidy it up. I would start with something like this:

Let ##B(P_0, r)## be an open sphere in ##\mathbb{R}^m##

Let ##P \in B(P_0, r)##

##d(P_0, P) < r## hence ##\exists \epsilon > 0## ...
 
A silly comment, but I don't like the term "open sphere". The terminology "open ball" is standard, because a sphere is usually the name given to the boundary of the ball, not something in the interior.
 
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micromass said:
A silly comment, but I don't like the term "open sphere". The terminology "open ball" is standard, because a sphere is usually the name given to the boundary of the ball, not something in the interior.
I knew there was something off in the translation. I'll use ball to describe the set and sphere to describe its boundary, then.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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