Prove that the complement of a closed set is open

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Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Suppose that S is a closed set. We claim that Sc is open. Take any p ∈ Sc. If
there fails to exist an r > 0 such that
d(p, q) < r ⇒ q ∈ Sc
then for each r = 1/n with n = 1, 2, . . . there exists a point pn ∈ S such that
d(p, pn) < 1/n. This sequence in S converges to p ∈ Sc, contrary to closedness of S.
Therefore there actually does exist an r > 0 such that
d(p, q) < r ⇒ q ∈ Sc
which proves that Sc is an open set.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So my question here is not how to do the prove, because I have that proof right here. I am just confused about the proof. I understand that the argument in general is a proof by contradiction, by assuming that Sc is not open and deriving a contradiction. However, I am confused about the reasoning here:

If there fails to exist an r > 0 such that
d(p, q) < r ⇒ q ∈ Sc
then for each r = 1/n with n = 1, 2, . . . there exists a point pn ∈ S such that
d(p, pn) < 1/n. This sequence in S converges to p ∈ Sc.

Can someone explain the logic here? Where does the 1/n comes from? Why does that sequence converge to p?
 
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You take a point p in the complement where the condition for being an open set does not hold. You then show that there is a sequence in S that converges to that point in S^c, implying that S is not a closed set.

This question is significantly simpler using the general topological definition of a closed set: A closed set is the complement of an open set.