Proof that a limit does not exist with delta-epsilon definition

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around using the delta-epsilon definition of a limit to prove that the limit of the function \( \frac{1}{x} \) as \( x \) approaches 0 does not exist. The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to approach this proof, particularly due to a lack of examples in their textbook.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the negation of the limit definition but is unsure how to proceed with proving non-existence. Some participants question the validity of assuming a specific delta value instead of considering it universally quantified.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's attempts, providing feedback on the negation of the limit definition and discussing the implications of the limit's behavior from both sides. There is a recognition that further clarification of the original poster's understanding and approach is needed for effective guidance.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the need for a clear understanding of the delta-epsilon definition and the implications of limits approaching infinity. The original poster is constrained by the lack of examples in their textbook, which affects their confidence in tackling the problem.

vertciel
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Hello there,

I would like to learn how I can use the formal definition of a limit to prove that a limit does not exist. Unfortunately, my textbook (by Salas) does not offer any worked examples involving the following type of limit so I am not sure what to do. I write below that delta = 1 would seem to work because f(x) = 1/x increases without bounds on (0,1].

Thank you for your help.

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Homework Statement



\begin{align}<br /> &amp; \text{Prove that }\underset{x\to 0}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{1}{x}\text{ does not exist}\text{.} <br /> <br /> \end{align}

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


&gt;\begin{align}<br /> &amp; \text{I know that I must negate the limit definition, as such:} \\ <br /> &amp; \forall \text{L,}\exists \varepsilon \text{0 st }\delta \text{0, }\left| x-c \right|&lt;\delta \Rightarrow \left| f(x)-L \right|\ge \varepsilon \\ <br /> &amp; \text{Also, I believe that if I take }\delta =1,\text{ this value will help me with the above}\text{.} \\ <br /> &amp; \text{However, how would I go about doing this? } <br /> \end{align}
 
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You made errors in your negation (both semantic and typographical):

<br /> \forall L : \exists \epsilon &gt; 0 : \forall \delta &gt; 0 : \exists x : \left(0 &lt; \left|x-c\right| &lt; \delta\right) \,\, \wedge \,\, \left( \left| f(x) - L \right| &gt; \epsilon\right)
 
Thank you for your response, Hurkyl.

However, how would I show with an assumed delta value that the above limit does not exist?
 
Well, I was hoping that you'd notice that delta is universally quantified ("for all"), so that it's insufficient to assume it's one particular value.

However, since it is universally quantified, it is certainly true that if the limit does not exist, then the following statement is also true:
<br /> \forall L : \exists \epsilon &gt; 0 : \exists x : \left(0 &lt; \left|x-0\right| &lt; 1\right) \,\, \wedge \,\, \left( \left| \frac{1}{x} - L \right| &gt; \epsilon\right)<br />​
But two things:
. I can't effectively help you prove this statement if I have no idea what you've done on the problem and where specifically you're stuck
. I want to re-emphasize that if we prove this statement, we have not yet proven the limit does not exist.

(However, trying to work through this special case before tackling the full problem might be a good idea)
 
Thanks for your response, Hurkyl.

Proof that \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{x} does not exist:

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{-}} \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{0^{-}} = -\infty

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{0^{+}} = \infty

Since the right- and left-sided limits differ and do not exist in the first place, \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{x} does not exist.

As to my original problem, I simply do not know whether to start the proof that the above limit does not exist.

However, would I set epsilon to an arbitrary vallue and show that no delta can "reflect" this range on f(x) = \frac{1}{x}? If so, how would I do this?
 

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