Proof That Given Equation is Implicit Solution of Differential Eqn

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on demonstrating that the equation \( y^2 - 1 - (2y + xy)(y') = 0 \) is an implicit solution to the differential equation \( y^2 - 1 = (x + 2)^2 \). The user initially attempts to solve for \( y' \) using algebraic manipulation but is advised to apply implicit differentiation instead. The correct approach involves differentiating both sides of the equation directly, leading to the conclusion that the implicit differentiation technique is essential for solving this type of problem efficiently.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of implicit differentiation
  • Familiarity with differential equations
  • Knowledge of algebraic manipulation
  • Proficiency in calculus, specifically the chain rule
NEXT STEPS
  • Study implicit differentiation techniques in calculus
  • Review examples of solving differential equations using implicit methods
  • Practice algebraic manipulation of equations in calculus contexts
  • Learn about the chain rule and its applications in differentiation
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on differential equations, as well as educators seeking to enhance their teaching methods in implicit differentiation.

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"Show that the given equation is an implicit solution of the given differential eqn"

Homework Statement


Show that the given equation is an implicit solution of the given differential equation -

y2 - 1 - (2y + xy)(y-prime) = 0

y2 - 1 = (x + 2)2

Homework Equations


y2 - 1 - (2y + xy)(y-prime) = 0

y2 - 1 = (x + 2)2

The Attempt at a Solution



I probably went wrong here: Solve for y-prime: y2 - 1 = (x + 2 )2

y2 = (x + 2)2 + 1

y = [ (x + 2)2 + 1 ]1/2

y-prime (using chain rule)= 1/ { 2 [ ( x + 2 )2 + 1 ]1/2 } * 2(x + 2)

Then I would substitute y2 = (x + 2)2 + 1 into y2 - 1 - (2y + xy)(y-prime) = 0Am I on the right track? Because the problem as you can probably see may get a little messy unless I have to check my algebra better or something. Thank you!
 
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You aren't using the 'implicit differentiation' trick. If y^2=(x+1)^2+1 then you can find y' without solving for y. Just take d/dx of both sides. d/dx(y^2)=2*y*dy/dx. Take it from there.
 


Thanks I got it now, sorry to get back to this a bit late.
 

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