- #1

physicsjock

- 89

- 0

Hey,

http://img822.imageshack.us/img822/407/25944209.jpg

[itex]\begin{align}

& \frac{m{{v}^{2}}}{r}=\frac{Z{{e}^{2}}}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{r}^{2}}} \\

& L=\frac{Z{{e}^{2}}}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}v} \\

\end{align}[/itex]

and I know by using the v derived using Bohr's equations it will give the answer but that v is derived using L=nh so it's not that simple.

I can't figure out how to quantize L without breeching the conditions of the question. Would anyone have any ideas?

Thanks in advanced

http://img822.imageshack.us/img822/407/25944209.jpg

[itex]\begin{align}

& \frac{m{{v}^{2}}}{r}=\frac{Z{{e}^{2}}}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{r}^{2}}} \\

& L=\frac{Z{{e}^{2}}}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}v} \\

\end{align}[/itex]

and I know by using the v derived using Bohr's equations it will give the answer but that v is derived using L=nh so it's not that simple.

I can't figure out how to quantize L without breeching the conditions of the question. Would anyone have any ideas?

Thanks in advanced

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