eric123 Messages 4 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Feb 13, 2010 #1 Does anyone know how to proof the following: a^(log(b))=b^(log(a)) for a,b>0
Mark44 Mentor Insights Author Messages 38,144 Reaction score 10,740 Feb 13, 2010 #2 Let x = alog b and y = blog a Using the rules of logarithms, show that log x = log y, hence that alog b = blog a
Let x = alog b and y = blog a Using the rules of logarithms, show that log x = log y, hence that alog b = blog a