- #1
ptabor
- 15
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I'm trying to show that
[tex] \int \delta \prime(x-x')f(x') dx = f\prime(x) [/tex]
can I differentiate delta with respect to x' instead (giving me a minus sign), and then integrate by parts and note that the delta function is zero at the boundaries? this will give me an integral involving f' and delta, so the f' would come out - but I'm not sure that this will shift the argument of f to x.
Shankar demonstrates the property on page 62, but I'd like to know if my method is valid.
[tex] \int \delta \prime(x-x')f(x') dx = f\prime(x) [/tex]
can I differentiate delta with respect to x' instead (giving me a minus sign), and then integrate by parts and note that the delta function is zero at the boundaries? this will give me an integral involving f' and delta, so the f' would come out - but I'm not sure that this will shift the argument of f to x.
Shankar demonstrates the property on page 62, but I'd like to know if my method is valid.
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