Prove 1/n < a < n: Real Analysis Homework

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that for a positive real number \( a \), there exists a natural number \( n \) such that \( \frac{1}{n} < a < n \). This falls under the subject area of real analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss manipulating the inequalities algebraically and consider proving the two parts of the inequality separately. They reference the Archimedean Property to support their reasoning about the existence of suitable integers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different approaches to combine results from proving the inequalities separately. Some have raised questions about the justification for equating the integers \( m \) and \( n \) and whether making them larger affects the inequalities.

Contextual Notes

Participants are operating under the constraints of the problem statement and are considering the implications of choosing larger integers while maintaining the inequalities.

srfriggen
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Homework Statement



Prove that if a>0, there exists n in N such that 1/n < a < n.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I am starting with a>0 and trying to manipulate, algebraically, to get n > a > 1/n.

From a > 0 I can add 1 to both sides to obtain, a+1 > 1. Then I can choose some n such that:

n > a+1 > 1.

From there, divide by n to achieve the desired result for one part of the inequality:

1> (a+1)/n > 1/n. We know from above that n > 1, so I can write:

n > (a+1)/n > 1/n.


From here I'm not sure what to do.
 
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Try proving the two inequalities separately:

There exists an integer n in N such that a < n

There exists an integer m in N such that 1/m < a

Then think about how to combine these results.
 
jbunniii said:
Try proving the two inequalities separately:

There exists an integer n in N such that a < n

There exists an integer m in N such that 1/m < a

Then think about how to combine these results.


1. By the Archimedean Property, a < n for some n in N.

2. Again, by the Archimedean Property, 1 < am, for some m in N. So, 1/m < a.

Now I have: 1/m < a < n.

I don't see how I can justify that m=n.
 
OK, there exists an integer n in N such that a < n.

If you make n larger, is the inequality still true?

Similarly, there exists an integer m in N such that 1/m < a.

Does this remain true if you make m larger?
 
jbunniii said:
OK, there exists an integer n in N such that a < n.

If you make n larger, is the inequality still true?

Similarly, there exists an integer m in N such that 1/m < a.

Does this remain true if you make m larger?

yes, the inequalities both hold.

So could I just say, "We can make n and m large to arbitrary values such that m=n." Would that finish the proof?
 
srfriggen said:
yes, the inequalities both hold.

So could I just say, "We can make n and m large to arbitrary values such that m=n." Would that finish the proof?

Well, the question asks for a specific integer that satisfies both inequalities.

So if n satisfies the first inequality, and m satisfies the second one, what integer will satisfy both?
 
jbunniii said:
Well, the question asks for a specific integer that satisfies both inequalities.

So if n satisfies the first inequality, and m satisfies the second one, what integer will satisfy both?

so nm?
 
The bigger of the two :D
 

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