Prove a Statement about the Line Integral of a Vector Field

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the statement regarding the line integral of the vector field \(\vec{v} = \frac{-y\hat{x} + x\hat{y}}{x^2+y^2}\). Participants clarify that the integral \(\oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = 2\pi \times \text{winding number}\) around the origin, rather than being zero, is contingent upon the path's relationship to the singularity at the origin. Stokes' Theorem is referenced, highlighting that the theorem does not apply to curves enclosing the origin due to the vector field's singularity. The conclusion is that the integral computes a winding number, which is essential for understanding the behavior of the vector field.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector fields and line integrals
  • Familiarity with Stokes' Theorem
  • Knowledge of winding numbers in differential geometry
  • Ability to compute curl and analyze singularities in vector fields
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of Stokes' Theorem in relation to singular vector fields
  • Learn how to compute winding numbers for various closed curves
  • Explore the relationship between line integrals and contour integrals in complex analysis
  • Investigate the divergence theorem and its applications in vector calculus
USEFUL FOR

Students of advanced calculus, mathematicians studying vector fields, and anyone interested in the applications of Stokes' Theorem and winding numbers in physics and engineering.

Izzhov
Messages
120
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Given the vector field \vec{v} = (-y\hat{x} + x\hat{y})/(x^2+y^2)
Show that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = 2\pi\oint dl for any closed path, where dl is the line integral around the path.

Homework Equations


Stokes' Theorem: \oint_{\delta R} \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int_R \vec{dA}\cdot(\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{v})

The Attempt at a Solution


I tried finding the curl of v, and got that the x and y components were zero, and the z component is \frac{\delta}{\delta x}(x/(x^2+y^2)) + \frac{\delta}{\delta y}(y/(x^2+y^2)), which becomes (y^2-x^2+x^2-y^2)/(x^2+y^2)^2, which is also zero. But this can't be right, because that would imply that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int \vec{dA}\cdot0 = 0 by Stokes' Theorem, which would mean the thing I'm trying to show is false, since 2\pi\oint dl is not always zero.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Izzhov said:

Homework Statement


Given the vector field \vec{v} = (-y\hat{x} + x\hat{y})/(x^2+y^2)
Show that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = 2\pi\oint dl for any closed path, where dl is the line integral around the path.


Homework Equations


Stokes' Theorem: \oint_{\delta R} \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int_R \vec{dA}\cdot(\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{v})


The Attempt at a Solution


I tried finding the curl of v, and got that the x and y components were zero, and the z component is \frac{\delta}{\delta x}(x/(x^2+y^2)) + \frac{\delta}{\delta y}(y/(x^2+y^2)), which becomes (y^2-x^2+x^2-y^2)/(x^2+y^2)^2, which is also zero. But this can't be right, because that would imply that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int \vec{dA}\cdot0 = 0 by Stokes' Theorem, which would mean the thing I'm trying to show is false, since 2\pi\oint dl is not always zero.
Could it be that 2\pi\oint dl is always zero ?
 
SammyS said:
Could it be that 2\pi\oint dl is always zero ?
I don't think it could, because \oint dl represents the length of the line being integrated over, doesn't it? And there's no reason why the length of a closed loop must always be zero.
 
Izzhov said:
I don't think it could, because \oint dl represents the length of the line being integrated over, doesn't it? And there's no reason why the length of a closed loop must always be zero.

Yes, it does. Your Stoke's theorem argument doesn't apply to curves that wind around the origin since the vector field is singular at the origin. But it does to curves that don't. And they don't all have arclength 0. It think the question got garbled somehow. I think your vector integral really computes a winding number around the origin. It's not related to arclength.
 
What exactly do you mean by a "winding number around the origin?"
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Winding_number Your vector integral is zero if the curve doesn't contain the origin. As you checked with Stokes's theorem. It's 2pi if the curve winds once around the origin counterclockwise. It's -2pi if it winds once clockwise. Etc. Look down in the wikipedia reference to the 'Differential Geometry' section. You'll see your vector integral. I think the question they gave you is messed up.
 
I played around with the vector field and found that it does seem to hold that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} is equal to 2*pi times the winding number of any given closed loop, so I'm going to assume that's what my professor wanted me to prove. I can prove this is true when the winding number is zero by the divergence theorem (as you stated), but how do I go about proving it when the loop circles around the origin?
 
Izzhov said:
I played around with the vector field and found that it does seem to hold that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} is equal to 2*pi times the winding number of any given closed loop, so I'm going to assume that's what my professor wanted me to prove. I can prove this is true when the winding number is zero by the divergence theorem (as you stated), but how do I go about proving it when the loop circles around the origin?

You take a contour where the winding number is easy to compute. Say a contour along the unit circle. Now take your hard to compute contour. Draw a segment connecting the two contours. Figure out how you can run around the two contours using the segment bridging them and only enclose a region that does not contain the origin.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
Replies
20
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K