Prove: All Derivatives of f at 0 = 0 if Lim f(x)/x^n = 0 as x --> 0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a statement regarding the derivatives of a function \( f \) at 0, specifically under the condition that the limit of \( f(x)/x^n \) approaches 0 as \( x \) approaches 0. The subject area is calculus, focusing on derivatives and limits.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of induction as a potential method for proof, with some expressing uncertainty about its effectiveness. Others suggest utilizing Taylor expansion as an alternative approach, while also noting the relationship between Taylor series and induction.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different methods to approach the proof. Some participants have made attempts at base cases and are sharing their thoughts on the viability of induction versus Taylor expansion. No consensus has been reached, but various lines of reasoning are being examined.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of \( f \) being infinitely continuously differentiable and the specific conditions under which the limit is evaluated. There is also mention of the potential complications arising from the relationship between a function and its Taylor series.

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Homework Statement



if f is infinitely continuously differentiable and f(0) = 0 then prove that all derivatives of f at 0 are 0 iff lim f(x)/x^n = 0 as x --> 0

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I didnt know whether to use induction on this,
I tried a base case so said that f'(0)=0 iff lim (f(x)/x) = 0 as x--> 0
But then it gets messy..
Think i might be on the wrong lines.

Thanks a lot
 
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Yes, induction should be the way to go here. Did you already prove the base case? It shouldn't be too hard...
 
I don't think induction is the best approach. Try using the Taylor expansion of f instead.

EDIT: never mind, induction also works.
 
ideasrule said:
I don't think induction is the best approach. Try using the Taylor expansion of f instead.

EDIT: never mind, induction also works.

If you do Taylor expansion then you necessarily need to do induction. Note that f doesn't necessarily equal it's Taylor series!
 
Yeah i can do the base case and that's all proved etc but then i get stuck
 
For the induction hypothesis, try to calculate

[tex]\frac{f(x)}{x^n}[/tex]

by taking the Taylor expansion at 0. This will help you to evaluate the limit.
 

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